Interestingly, there are variant manuscripts regarding the John 14:14 version you used. There is a version that says "if you ask me for anything" and there is a version that says "if you ask for anything." Now, I will say that the earliest surviving manuscripts include "me" but the fact that this is one of those verses where someone either added or removed a word from the original manuscript is suspicious. I find it out of step with Jesus' other teachings where he said to ask the Father instead (John 15:16, John 16:23, John 16:26) and to pray to the Father (Matthew 6:6,9) and everyone else in the New Testament saying ask the Father (Ephesians 3:14-16, Ephesians 5:20, Colossians 1:3, Colossians 3:17)
Then out of the blue, one contested verse with a manuscript variant, that says "Ask me" in John 14:14 appears. Unlikely to be an original, especially with the existence of John 16:23 where Jesus said "ask me nothing, ask the Father."
But let's assume for the sake of discussion that John 14:14 is the original and says "Ask me for anything." That's fine. The context is just while they were still there in Israel. Jesus often would take the disciples requests and prayers and ask his God and Father for things on their behalf. Jesus is the kind of guy you want praying for you. His prayers are gonna get heard and answered. It doesn't override the only instruction to pray to the Father... unless you believe Jesus is the Father?
Of course Jesus isn’t the Father. My original point was that your claim, “John 16:23,24 supersedes John 14:13,14 in the biblical timeline,” in no way whatsoever “proves that there are no instructions to pray to Jesus in the Bible.”
If “me” is in the text, Jesus is simply saying that we can ask things of both him and the Father.
No, but they said similar things.
Perhaps some similar things, but Jesus said some vastly different things. Jesus claimed to be the Christ, the Son of God, and the Son of Man. He claimed to have come from heaven (John 3:13; 6:33-33, 38, 51; 8:23; 16:28), to have timeless existence (John 8:58;17:5, 24), and to be omnipresent (Matt. 18:20).
All these things, and more, point to Jesus being truly God just as he is truly man. So, as God he is worthy of our worship, as we see a few times in NT, and we can pray to him.
Jesus' status Lord of the church and savior, the messiah, are separate from that. Let's say Jesus told his disciples to ask him for things? Why did Jesus later turn and say "Don't ask me for anything, ask the Father" in John 16:23?
What Jesus didn’t say was, “Don’t ask me for anything.”
Jhn 16:23 In that day you will ask nothing of me. Truly, truly, I say to you, whatever you ask of the Father in my name, he will give it to you.
First, Jesus is speaking of a specific time—“In that day.” It certainly refers to after his resurrection but also likely to after his ascension (16:16-22). Second, in that day, they “will ask nothing.” That is very different from telling them to not ask him for anything. He is essentially saying that they will not need to ask him.
Also, if it is true that Jesus had said to ask him and now says to ask the Father, there is no problem. It would simply mean we can ask both of them for things.