Sinless Perfection. Why do so many teach against what Jesus taught?

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1stCenturyLady

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true

But in context of 1 John, once is not the proper word.
EG, the context of chapter 3 is lawlessness; the breaking of God's commandment which can only be done willfully. That is a sin unto death which a born again Christian filled with God's Spirit cannot commit. Therefore, if someone who is born again does commit a sin of lawlessness, it only requires one time to commit apostasy. It is a major sin, not just crossing over the speed limit. You see, only our past sins of lawlessness were cleansed from our sin nature when it was made clean according to 2 Peter 1. Hebrews 10:26-31 says those who willfully sins that type of sin after being born again and was already cleansed of willful lawlessness "there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, 27 but a certain fearful expectation of judgment, and fiery indignation which will devour the adversaries." How many times did Adam have to eat of the Tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil against God's command to damn everything to death? Once.
 

ProDeo

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Have you studied the language?

Much love!

I am an illiterate Greek brute. But seriously what I found about the Greek is confusing, the meaning of words change overtime. I can give you several examples of my own native language. And there is this known English : going Dutch and in English it changed overtime in numerous various ways, maybe you have your own examples in your own native langue.

How can we possibly know the meaning of words in the NT written down ~2000 years ago did not change overtime ?

1. The key Greek word in 1 John 3:9 is poieo looking it up gives me various descriptions, what was the correct understanding 2000 years ago? Can you tell me?

2. Matt 25:46 And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal.

The Greek word for punishment is Kolasis and the word changed overtime, AI gives -

Core Meanings & Etymology
    • Literal Origin: The term traces back to roots meaning "to cut short," "lop," or "prune" (as in trimming trees or branches).
    • Classical vs. General Usage: In classical Greek philosophy (such as the writings of Plato and Aristotle), kolasis was often distinguished from timoria (revenge or retributive penalty). Kolasis specifically implied corrective or restorative punishment intended for the improvement or discipline of the person receiving it. Over time and in Hellenistic literature, it broadened to mean general penal infliction, torment, or punishment.
    • Modern Greek: In modern Greek, the related word κόλαση (kolasi) translates directly to hell.
So what is the truth ?

In the end we will have to trust the translator.
 

ProDeo

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It means that as long as the seed (grace) of God remains in the soul of the believer, he cannot sin...he will not sin. The grace of God overcomes sin.

That means a number of things.

1. If a believer has never walked for at least a few days/weeks or so without ANY sin....that person was never born of the Spirit. That is for the initial grace.

2. What makes the initial grace run/leak out? The gradual or sudden unbelief of the one who is not used to walking in a place of perfection. The slow erosion of faith by the cares of this world. Like too many papers getting in the way of a fridge magnet.

3. After that initial grace has run out....the believer enters the Romans 7 phase...where most never proceed from.

Well, my path and experience are absolutely different, initial grace (conversion) -> Romans 7 -> Romans 8, still there. No way back to Romans 7, learned my lesson.
 

1stCenturyLady

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1. The key Greek word in 1 John 3:9 is poieo looking it up gives me various descriptions, what was the correct understanding 2000 years ago? Can you tell me?
In Greek poieo means commit. The context of the whole chapter three is lawlessness against God's laws which you can only commit willfully, not unintentionally - the second and lesser type of sin not shown in this chapter.

The lesser type is basically due to immature fruit of the Spirit which Jesus as the Finisher of our faith matures in us as we continuously walk in the Spirit abiding in Him. The lesser sin is the only type of sin that 1 John 1:7 is referring to. That verse is NOT about the willful type of sin in 1 John 3 that a born again of the Spirit Christian has no desire and also has the power of the Spirit not to commit.
 

Episkopos

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Episkopos is pretty much the last person to take religious advise from.
If you want religious advice I suggest you find a Babylonian pulpiteer who can find the time to indoctrinate you to a suitable degree that pleases your flesh. You may have to wait a few months though.
 

JustMe

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If you have never had an initial grace you have not yet been regenerated in the Spirit. If you have received an initial grace and then sinned again, you have not retained your initial grace...there is no sin under grace. But you can still repent and seek to be filled with the Spirit subsequently.


A man can be converted over time without being born of the Spirit. Righteousness is about what we do. So if you repented from evil works and continue to do good works...then you have a level of conversion that God can show mercy to. That is by His MERCY standard. The glory standard is by calling and election.


All grace can and will be lost...as least initially. That's why there is a throne of grace we can go to in time of need (Heb 4:16).. God gives MORE grace to the humble (James 4:6)

Not all people who convert to a religion are born of the Spirit. That's an error to think that we can decide if we are born again or not. A modern church error. But it's OK to convert to Christ by an act of the will and be water baptized....making a commitment to Christ to serve God to the best of one's ability. That's on the righteousness level.

On the holiness level the bible says...I was found of them that sought Me not. So for holiness it is GOD who decides if a man should follow Him or not...not people. Jesus went up to His disciples and said...follow Me! Not...Hi Jesus I mean to follow you. Those who followed Jesus that were not called by Jesus followed Him from a distance...then as now.

You are still not making clear what you mean by your so-called "'initial' grace," nor whether it can be lost or not retained. Because of this, I am left to conclude you are unable to explain it in a clear way, as I already did in my previous reply.

In reality, you seem to use the term 'initial grace' along with many others as though their meanings are obvious, but they are not. This is evident in the way you apply them here and across other discussions.

What do you mean by 'no sin under grace.'? What kind of unusual grace is this that supposedly involves being sinless?

What does scripture say:

The theological concept that there is "no sin under grace" is a misunderstanding of biblical teaching, particularly Romans 6:14–15. The correct interpretation is that while believers are not under the condemnation of the Law, they are not free to sin.

"Sin Has No Dominion: Romans 6:14 states, "For sin shall not have dominion over you, for you are not under law but under grace." This means grace breaks sin's power and mastery, not that sin ceases to exist or be forbidden.

Grace Is Not a License: Romans 6:15 explicitly asks, "Shall we sin because we are not under law but under grace?" and answers with "Certainly not!" (or "By no means!").

Purpose of Grace: Grace does not provide permission to continue in sin; rather, it provides the power and freedom to live righteously and escape the bondage of sin."

So you must mean that there is no permission to sin under grace. Instead, we have freedom to live truly righteous lives through God’s grace. That is what scripture teaches.

How can someone be converted 'over time' without being born of the Spirit? Scripture does not support this kind of extreme interpretation at all. I hope you are not blending Old Testament understandings of God’s actions and human works being called righteous with New Testament grace.

What do you mean by 'Righteousness is about what we do.'?

Scripture says:

This statement is incorrect according to scripture and its doctrine, which teaches that righteousness is primarily a gift received through faith rather than something achieved through human deeds. While righteous living is involved in aligning with God’s will, believers are declared righteous through Jesus Christ’s righteousness being credited to them, not their own moral performance.

Righteousness by Faith: The Bible states that no one can be justified by their own works; instead, righteousness is given to those who believe in Christ (Romans 3:22, Philippians 3:9).

Imputed Righteousness: On the cross, Jesus/Yeshua exchanged human sin for His own perfect righteousness, meaning God sees Christ’s holiness in believers rather than their flaws (2 Corinthians 5:21).

Result, Not Cause: Good works and righteous behavior are the fruit or evidence of a right relationship with God, not the cause of it (Ephesians 2:10).

Relational Definition: Biblically, righteousness is defined as being in a right relationship with God, characterized by faithfulness to the covenant, rather than merely following a list of rules.

What do you mean by 'if you repented from evil works and continue to do good works...then you have a level of conversion that God can show mercy to. That is by His MERCY standard. '?

What do you mean by 'The glory standard is by calling and election..'?

What do you mean by 'But you can still repent and seek to be filled with the Spirit subsequently."?

What do you mean by 'ALL grace will be lost...?...AND at least INITIALLY??? A THRONE of GRACE, is what meaning for you!? Is this your own spiritual poetry you are reciting here?'?

Scripture says:

Heb 4:14 Therefore, since we have a great high priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold firmly to what we profess.
Heb 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who was tempted in every way that we are, yet was without sin.
Heb 4:16 Let us then approach the throne of grace with confidence, so that we may receive mercy and find grace to help us in our time of need.

Does it say ALL GRACE WILL BE LOST (at least INITIALLY) as you state? No, it does not. Do you understand what grace truly means? I wonder.

In James:

Jas 4:4 You adulteresses! Do you not know that friendship with the world is hostility toward God? Therefore, whoever chooses to be a friend of the world renders himself an enemy of God.
Jas 4:5 Or do you think the Scripture says without reason that the Spirit He caused to dwell in us yearns with envy?
Jas 4:6 But He gives us more grace. This is why it says: “God opposes the proud, but gives grace to the humble.”
Jas 4:7 Submit yourselves, then, to God. Resist the devil, and he will flee from you.

And God is not only saying He gives more grace to the humble here; He is also indicating a condition: that the SPIRIT must already dwell within us, meaning one must be converted and born of the Spirit. One cannot be gradually converted without this, as you suggest.

What do you mean by 'That's on the righteousness level.'?

What do you mean by 'That's on the holiness level.'?

It seems you have taken many scriptural terms, nouns, and phrases and repackaged them with new self-created expressions for your own doctrinal framework.

I would suggest you clearly define your doctrine and explain the meanings of your key terms, otherwise people will remain skeptical and may not trust what you are saying as truth. Is your intention to remain vague and use poetic, self-styled language in your teaching?

A short list of apparently unscripturally reused, undefined, or unclear terms used within your doctrine(s):

'initial grace', 'good works', 'level of conversion', 'righteousness level', 'holiness level', 'mercy standard', 'glory standard', 'throne of grace', 'filled with the Spirit', 'righteousness works'


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1stCenturyLady

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If you have never had an initial grace you have not yet been regenerated in the Spirit. If you have received an initial grace and then sinned again, you have not retained your initial grace...there is no sin under grace. But you can still repent and seek to be filled with the Spirit subsequently.
Hi E,

In this post above what initial grace does one have before being filled with the Spirit?
 

Episkopos

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Hi E,

In this post above what initial grace does one have before being filled with the Spirit?
It depends on the person. Some people only get a small sample that lasts for a short time...others such as myself was baptized in the Spirit initially. Most have to wait for a subsequent filling called by some...the 2nd blessing.

Regardless, the first time someone experiences a filling of the Spirit, there is a lack of understanding of what God expects of a person....and invariably the grace leaks out or gets put away by the cares of this world.
 
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Episkopos

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You are still not making clear what you mean by your so-called "'initial' grace," nor whether it can be lost or not retained. Because of this, I am left to conclude you are unable to explain it in a clear way, as I already did in my previous reply.

In reality, you seem to use the term 'initial grace' along with many others as though their meanings are obvious, but they are not. This is evident in the way you apply them here and across other discussions.

What do you mean by 'no sin under grace.'? What kind of unusual grace is this that supposedly involves being sinless?

What does scripture say:

The theological concept that there is "no sin under grace" is a misunderstanding of biblical teaching, particularly Romans 6:14–15. The correct interpretation is that while believers are not under the condemnation of the Law, they are not free to sin.

"Sin Has No Dominion: Romans 6:14 states, "For sin shall not have dominion over you, for you are not under law but under grace." This means grace breaks sin's power and mastery, not that sin ceases to exist or be forbidden.

Grace Is Not a License: Romans 6:15 explicitly asks, "Shall we sin because we are not under law but under grace?" and answers with "Certainly not!" (or "By no means!").

Purpose of Grace: Grace does not provide permission to continue in sin; rather, it provides the power and freedom to live righteously and escape the bondage of sin."

So you must mean that there is no permission to sin under grace. Instead, we have freedom to live truly righteous lives through God’s grace. That is what scripture teaches.

How can someone be converted 'over time' without being born of the Spirit? Scripture does not support this kind of extreme interpretation at all. I hope you are not blending Old Testament understandings of God’s actions and human works being called righteous with New Testament grace.

What do you mean by 'Righteousness is about what we do.'?

Scripture says:

This statement is incorrect according to scripture and its doctrine, which teaches that righteousness is primarily a gift received through faith rather than something achieved through human deeds. While righteous living is involved in aligning with God’s will, believers are declared righteous through Jesus Christ’s righteousness being credited to them, not their own moral performance.

Righteousness by Faith: The Bible states that no one can be justified by their own works; instead, righteousness is given to those who believe in Christ (Romans 3:22, Philippians 3:9).

Imputed Righteousness: On the cross, Jesus/Yeshua exchanged human sin for His own perfect righteousness, meaning God sees Christ’s holiness in believers rather than their flaws (2 Corinthians 5:21).

Result, Not Cause: Good works and righteous behavior are the fruit or evidence of a right relationship with God, not the cause of it (Ephesians 2:10).

Relational Definition: Biblically, righteousness is defined as being in a right relationship with God, characterized by faithfulness to the covenant, rather than merely following a list of rules.

What do you mean by 'if you repented from evil works and continue to do good works...then you have a level of conversion that God can show mercy to. That is by His MERCY standard. '?

What do you mean by 'The glory standard is by calling and election..'?

What do you mean by 'But you can still repent and seek to be filled with the Spirit subsequently."?

What do you mean by 'ALL grace will be lost...?...AND at least INITIALLY??? A THRONE of GRACE, is what meaning for you!? Is this your own spiritual poetry you are reciting here?'?

Scripture says:

Heb 4:14 Therefore, since we have a great high priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold firmly to what we profess.
Heb 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who was tempted in every way that we are, yet was without sin.
Heb 4:16 Let us then approach the throne of grace with confidence, so that we may receive mercy and find grace to help us in our time of need.

Does it say ALL GRACE WILL BE LOST (at least INITIALLY) as you state? No, it does not. Do you understand what grace truly means? I wonder.

In James:

Jas 4:4 You adulteresses! Do you not know that friendship with the world is hostility toward God? Therefore, whoever chooses to be a friend of the world renders himself an enemy of God.
Jas 4:5 Or do you think the Scripture says without reason that the Spirit He caused to dwell in us yearns with envy?
Jas 4:6 But He gives us more grace. This is why it says: “God opposes the proud, but gives grace to the humble.”
Jas 4:7 Submit yourselves, then, to God. Resist the devil, and he will flee from you.

And God is not only saying He gives more grace to the humble here; He is also indicating a condition: that the SPIRIT must already dwell within us, meaning one must be converted and born of the Spirit. One cannot be gradually converted without this, as you suggest.

What do you mean by 'That's on the righteousness level.'?

What do you mean by 'That's on the holiness level.'?

It seems you have taken many scriptural terms, nouns, and phrases and repackaged them with new self-created expressions for your own doctrinal framework.

I would suggest you clearly define your doctrine and explain the meanings of your key terms, otherwise people will remain skeptical and may not trust what you are saying as truth. Is your intention to remain vague and use poetic, self-styled language in your teaching?

A short list of apparently unscripturally reused, undefined, or unclear terms used within your doctrine(s):

'initial grace', 'good works', 'level of conversion', 'righteousness level', 'holiness level', 'mercy standard', 'glory standard', 'throne of grace', 'filled with the Spirit', 'righteousness works'


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There is no sin in grace because it is the power of God unto salvation (from sin). It is the power of God usward who believe.
 
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ProDeo

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The New Testament was written in Koine Greek, which is different from Classical and Modern Greek. Yes, it's knowable, you have to apply yourself to learning.

Much love!

I expected a better answer from you, I gave a clear example of a Greek word that changed over time, what did Jesus mean when he used the word Kolasis ?

But never mind, I take the ESV as the truth of the matter because it makes 1 John coherent.

One way to read the KJV coherent is that the apostle John was without sin and then we are all toasted.
 

Episkopos

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I expected a better answer from you, I gave a clear example of a Greek word that changed over time, what did Jesus mean when he used the word Kolasis ?

But never mind, I take the ESV as the truth of the matter because it makes 1 John coherent.

One way to read the KJV coherent is that the apostle John was without sin and then we are all toasted.
Almost enough to spark a little fear of the Lord, eh? Perish the thought, right?
 
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And yet you cling to a forgiveness that excuses any present or future sin.
No, not cling to a forgiveness that excuses sin. A forgiveness that forgives all present and future sin. And I cling to it for my very life. That's what faith and trust in God are all about. His forgiveness is not a license to sin. The person who makes his forgiveness a license to sin is showing they don't really have the forgiveness of God. They are an unconverted unbeliever.

There is no such guarantee from God.
Romans 10:13
13for, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.” f

Not might be saved - will be saved. God's word is his promise. If you don't believe God you won't and can't have what he promises. The things of God are received by believing and trusting in them. The person who says there is no guarantee of God's word being true can't have the benefit of God's word.
 

Episkopos

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No, not cling to a forgiveness that excuses sin. A forgiveness that forgives all present and future sin.

You have to know that isn't true. If you continue to sin then you are a transgressor and Christ is NOT a minister of sin.

That's why people who claim to be saved IN their sin are the most deceived of all religionists. The righteous INHERIT life because they will only be saved on judgment day...by God's MERCY. To claim to be saved now means you are walking in the salvation power of grace that overcomes sin.

So a man might have been saved in the past...but goes back or falls back into a life that is still in bondage to sin...meaning that the person needs to GO BACK to God to be restored to the same level of salvation he began with.

So in your scheme there is no repentance. Big mistake.
And I cling to it for my very life. That's what faith and trust in God are all about. His forgiveness is not a license to sin. The person who makes his forgiveness a license to sin is showing they don't really have the forgiveness of God. They are an unconverted unbeliever.

This is you making the standard while fully ignoring God's words and warnings. A lot of that in the decoy churches.
Romans 10:13
13for, “Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.”

Yes, but saved to WHAT???? To eternal shame in outer darkness? Is that what you are aiming for?
f

Not might be saved - will be saved. God's word is his promise. If you don't believe God you won't and can't have what he promises.

God promises to judge all according to their deeds. Salvation is good, but you are not reading the bible carefully enough. MANY MANY modern believers are headed for outer darkness. I'm trying to wake people up...but they have a spirit of deep sleep on them...they can't hear the truth or awaken to the truth. They have a rouach tardemah.
The things of God are received by believing and trusting in them.

in them....you mean believing a fantasy....adopting pleasant thoughts about a future utopia. Why not subject your beliefs to reality? Seek the Lord for real.
The person who says there is no guarantee of God's word being true can't have the benefit of God's word.
I'm trying to get God's word through to you....but you are unable to hear what Jesus is saying....or any other writer in the bible. And you can't hear me either.

The guarantee you NEED to pay attention to is that IF you repent of your naming and claiming...that Jesus will SELL YOU pure clothing, eye salve and true riches whereby glory will await.
 
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1stCenturyLady

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It depends on the person. Some people only get a small sample that lasts for a short time...others such as myself was baptized in the Spirit initially. Most have to wait for a subsequent filling called by some...the 2nd blessing.

Regardless, the first time someone experiences a filling of the Spirit, there is a lack of understanding of what God expects of a person....and invariably the grace leaks out or gets put away by the cares of this world.
I had the same experience you had - both at once. The cleansing of fleshly desires from my nature, and the power of God. But it remained. No "leakage."
 
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So a man might have been saved in the past...but goes back or falls back into a life that is still in bondage to sin...meaning that the person needs to GO BACK to God to be restored to the same level of salvation he began with.
The key here being "back into a life."

For the born again Christian the only way they can lose their salvation, assuming that's possible, is to reject God's forgiveness altogether in unbelief and willingly and delibetately live in sin again. The born again child of God who sins in their journey of growing up to look like Christ does not lose his salvation. No child is born mature. They progress towards maturity. Deliberately living in sin as a lifestyle constitutes the life of the unbeliever, not a believing born again child of God growing up to look like Jesus.
 
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So in your scheme there is no repentance.
A continual attitude of repentance is foundational to the Christian life. That doesn't mean you won't sin. It means you're not seeking to live in sin. And if/when you do sin you seek your Father's forgiveness and cleansing and you continue in your journey to maturity.
 

Ronald David Bruno

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I believe this is imperfect but not sin. Love goes beyond not sinning and into doing good for others.
Remember the test of the people that bypassed the beaten, bloodied man on the way to Samaria? They chose not to help, not to be perfect. Are you saying they did not sin? I guess according to the Ten commandments maybe they didn't. But what about Jesus' commandment to love your neighbor as yourself? The Good Samaritan acted perfectly in love.
 
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