Christianity is NOT Derived From Judaism

[Wick Stick]

Stop it, people. While the term "Jew" may have been derived from the tribe of Judah, the term has been a synecdoche for "descendent of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob (a.k.a. 'Israel'; see Genesis 32:22-32)" for millennia and was used that way in the New Testament.

You stop it.

The Bible goes to great lengths to separate the Northern kingdom (Israel, House of Israel, Ephraim, Samaria) from the Southern kingdom (Judah, House of Judah, Judea, Jews).

They are NOT the same thing. The books of history treat them as separate. The prophets give them different prophecies.

"Jew" has been a synecdoche only for the religion invented by the Pharisees after the destruction of the 2nd Temple, starting near the end of the 1st century. If you have believed that this is all the descendants of Abraham, then you have believed some propaganda.

 

[prism]

The Bible identifies the patriarchs as Syrian:

Where in the Bible does it say Abraham was Syrian?
"A Syrian ready to perish [was] my father" Deut 26:5 doesn't pass the smell test. Abraham was Gentile converted to Jew due to circumcision.

 

[Wrangler]

I will make it simple for the ignorant on this thread that form the belief that Christ was a Jew in the sense of today's Jews/Judaism

It is your ignorance on display buddy. There is more than one sense of many words, including “Jew.” I meant the sense that makes what I write correct - and not the narrowest possible sense of the word maximize the chance that I’m wrong.

Honestly, the hatred Christians have for Jesus’ people on this site is appalling!

Stop it, people. While the term "Jew" may have been derived from the tribe of Judah, the term has been a synecdoche for "descendent of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob (a.k.a. 'Israel'; see Genesis 32:22-32)" for millennia and was used that way in the New Testament.

Agreed.

You stop it.

The Bible goes to great lengths to separate the Northern kingdom (Israel, House of Israel, Ephraim, Samaria) from the Southern kingdom (Judah, House of Judah, Judea, Jews).

They are NOT the same thing. The books of history treat them as separate.

‘The Bible‘ also uses the term ”Jew” to refer to all Israel in the time of the Apostles. See Romans 2. Verse 9 specifically says the Jew first, not in contrast to Israel but in contrast to Greeks.

 

[Davy]

John 8:56 KJV
[56] Your father Abraham (who was a Jew) rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.

Judah had not been born yet in Abraham's day. The word Jew comes from the name of the tribe of Judah. Your statement shows one of the problems in today's Churches; they've been deceived by Jews to think all the seed back to Adam are Jews. The word Jew is not about a race. It is about a group of Israelites of the southern "kingdom of Judah" that began calling themselves that after their return to Jerusalem from their Babylon captivity. I've already shown this from the Jewish historian Josephus.

 

[Wrangler]

The word Jew comes from the name of the tribe of Judah.

Agreed. However, are your lexicographer standards such words can only have one sense, their original sense?

 

[Davy]

It is your ignorance on display buddy. There is more than one sense of many words, including “Jew.” I meant the sense that makes what I write correct - and not the narrowest possible sense of the word maximize the chance that I’m wrong.

That brings back memories of what Bill Clinton said,

"It depends upon what the meaning of the word 'is' is." ​

(Bill Clinton, Grand Jury testimony August 17, 1988, answering questions about his attorney's description of an affidavit by Monica Lewinsky.)

 

[Davy]

And do we not have Josephus quoting that the "Jews" are a people seperate and distinct from God's people "Israel"

Yes, in that Antiquities of the Jews history that he wrote, which I have quoted about the small remnant of the "house of Judah" that returned from Babylon calling themselves Jews, when the ten tribes of Israel had been scattered out of the land for many years prior.