CONCLUSION
So, with all this evidence in mind, I hold that:
(1) John's 'Mary the wife of Clopas ' is the same person as the Synoptics' 'Mary the mother of James and Joseph/Jose' (the Mary of the cross/tomb accounts).
(2) This Mary is in turn the 'sister' (i.e., close tribal relative) of Jesus' mother Mary.
(3) This is how Jesus is 'brothers' with James and Joseph (Jose).
(4) His other 'brothers' (Judas and Simon), as well as his 'sisters,' and the 'brothers' who don't believe in Him in John 7:5 are from other branches of His extended tribal family.
But, let's play devil's advocate.
If James, Joseph (Jose), Simon, and Judas ARE INDEED Jesus' fraternal brothers, then the Synoptics' Mary of the cross/tomb (i.e., the mother of James and Joseph/Jose) MUST be Jesus' mother as well.
And, after all, there ARE certain seemingly-logical arguments to support this:
-- James and Joseph (Jose) ARE called Jesus' brothers.
-- And, their mother IS named Mary (the same as Jesus')
-- And, one must admit, it's also possible that the comma between 'His mother's sister' and 'Mary the wife of Clopas' in John 19:25 may be distinguishing two different women instead of identifying Clopas' wife as the Virgin Mary's sister.
So, therefore, Mary the wife of Clopas may NOT be a relative at all NOR is she necessarily the same woman as 'Mary the mother of James and Joseph/Jose' in the Synoptics.
So, can 'Mary (Clopas) the mother of James and Joseph/Jose' be Jesus' mother as well?
Well, if this is the case, then
(A) Why is she never called the mother of Jesus in the cross/tomb accounts? (Wouldn't that be easier than constantly 'switching' between James and Jose?)
(B) Why is she never called the mother of the other brothers, Simon and Judas?
(C) Why isn't she simply called the wife of Joseph?
(D) Why is she always listed second (and in Luke, third) after Mary Magdalene?
(E) Why does Matthew refer to her as merely 'the other Mary' in 28:1?
(F) Why does John cite a second Mary at the cross: Mary the wife of Clopas? (A character who doesn't appear in the Synoptics, unless she's the mother of James and Joseph.)
(G) If John is calling his 'Mary the wife of Clopas' the virgin Mary's sister, how can the word 'adelphos' (or 'adelphe' in the feminine) be taken literally? Two sisters both named Mary?!
It therefore must be admitted that, if 'Mary the mother of James and Joseph/Jose' and Jesus' mother are one and the same, then
-- The three Synoptics (Matthew, Mark, and Luke) are INTENTIONALLY neglecting to call her Jesus' mother in their cross/tomb accounts (as if she's not Jesus' mother anymore.)
-- The Synoptics are also INTENTIONALLY depicting her as a minor character, less important than Mary Magdalene. And, in the case of Matthew, she's reduced to merely 'the other Mary' in 28:1.
So, with all this evidence in mind, I hold that:
(1) John's 'Mary the wife of Clopas ' is the same person as the Synoptics' 'Mary the mother of James and Joseph/Jose' (the Mary of the cross/tomb accounts).
(2) This Mary is in turn the 'sister' (i.e., close tribal relative) of Jesus' mother Mary.
(3) This is how Jesus is 'brothers' with James and Joseph (Jose).
(4) His other 'brothers' (Judas and Simon), as well as his 'sisters,' and the 'brothers' who don't believe in Him in John 7:5 are from other branches of His extended tribal family.
But, let's play devil's advocate.
If James, Joseph (Jose), Simon, and Judas ARE INDEED Jesus' fraternal brothers, then the Synoptics' Mary of the cross/tomb (i.e., the mother of James and Joseph/Jose) MUST be Jesus' mother as well.
And, after all, there ARE certain seemingly-logical arguments to support this:
-- James and Joseph (Jose) ARE called Jesus' brothers.
-- And, their mother IS named Mary (the same as Jesus')
-- And, one must admit, it's also possible that the comma between 'His mother's sister' and 'Mary the wife of Clopas' in John 19:25 may be distinguishing two different women instead of identifying Clopas' wife as the Virgin Mary's sister.
So, therefore, Mary the wife of Clopas may NOT be a relative at all NOR is she necessarily the same woman as 'Mary the mother of James and Joseph/Jose' in the Synoptics.
So, can 'Mary (Clopas) the mother of James and Joseph/Jose' be Jesus' mother as well?
Well, if this is the case, then
(A) Why is she never called the mother of Jesus in the cross/tomb accounts? (Wouldn't that be easier than constantly 'switching' between James and Jose?)
(B) Why is she never called the mother of the other brothers, Simon and Judas?
(C) Why isn't she simply called the wife of Joseph?
(D) Why is she always listed second (and in Luke, third) after Mary Magdalene?
(E) Why does Matthew refer to her as merely 'the other Mary' in 28:1?
(F) Why does John cite a second Mary at the cross: Mary the wife of Clopas? (A character who doesn't appear in the Synoptics, unless she's the mother of James and Joseph.)
(G) If John is calling his 'Mary the wife of Clopas' the virgin Mary's sister, how can the word 'adelphos' (or 'adelphe' in the feminine) be taken literally? Two sisters both named Mary?!
It therefore must be admitted that, if 'Mary the mother of James and Joseph/Jose' and Jesus' mother are one and the same, then
-- The three Synoptics (Matthew, Mark, and Luke) are INTENTIONALLY neglecting to call her Jesus' mother in their cross/tomb accounts (as if she's not Jesus' mother anymore.)
-- The Synoptics are also INTENTIONALLY depicting her as a minor character, less important than Mary Magdalene. And, in the case of Matthew, she's reduced to merely 'the other Mary' in 28:1.