Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.
You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
I guess his Mama.
Mama didn't shed his blood.exactly - so like this also for Mama was Mary = co redeemer - twinc
exactly - so like this also for Mama was Mary = co redeemer - twinc
Mama didn't shed his blood.
Since the Catholic Church teaches that Mary was sinless, it would follow that she was also "co-redeemer".
Doesn't it take a sinless sacrifice to save people from their sins? And who else was sinless, other than Jesus and Mary?
If she is co-redeemer with Christ, she should be worshipped.
no of course not but as foretold a sword pierced her heart - twinc
reverenced yes but not worshipped which is reserved for divinity - James
Why wouldn't both redeemers be worshipped?
Jesus shed his carnal blood to pay the price for the death that was in every man, but that human blood did not give anyone Life. That blood came to him through his mother who was also spiritually dead until she came to the upper room with the 120. Her carnal human blood also had no Life in it at the time of Jesus natural birth. That was the blood of the carnal flesh of Jesus. Because he was clean spiritually, without spot or blemish or any such thing, he could be and was the Lamb of God who died that we might live. But his dying did NOT bring us to Life. It simply opened the closed Door [The Gate into the Garden of Eden wherein was the Tree of Life.] The Life which Jesus was could not come to people who were full of death until a Way had been opened. There is still no room for Life in a closed heart. Without the sacrifice of Jesus there could be only death in men.it is stated 'by His blood' we are redeemed but it is not clearly stated or understood where He got His human blood from - any comments - twinc
Where does Scripture say that Mary was "spiritually dead" until Pentecost?Jesus shed his carnal blood to pay the price for the death that was in every man, but that human blood did not give anyone Life. That blood came to him through his mother who was also spiritually dead until she came to the upper room with the 120. Her carnal human blood also had no Life in it at the time of Jesus natural birth. That was the blood of the carnal flesh of Jesus. Because he was clean spiritually, without spot or blemish or any such thing, he could be and was the Lamb of God who died that we might live. But his dying did NOT bring us to Life. It simply opened the closed Door [The Gate into the Garden of Eden wherein was the Tree of Life.] The Life which Jesus was could not come to people who were full of death until a Way had been opened. There is still no room for Life in a closed heart. Without the sacrifice of Jesus there could be only death in men.
After the Door was opened then the Life which Jesus brought was available to the man who was hungry and thirsty for the righteousness of God. The hungry and thirsty had Life enter into them as they ate his spiritual Flesh [the Word] and ate his spiritual blood [the Holy Spirit].
"Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you.
Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day." John 6:53-54
Where does Scripture say that Mary was "spiritually dead" until Pentecost?
MY Bible states that Mary was Kecharitomene, which means “completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace.” It indicates a completed action with permanent result.
Somebody who is perfectly completed in grace cannot be "spiritually dead."
Finally - show me where the Flesh and Blood of Jesus that He talks about in John 6 is His "Word" and the Holy Spirit.
You are way off! First of all when the Holy Spirit came upon Mary and the power of the Most High overshadowed her she was instantly perfected. Her soul was BORN AGAIN and her flesh made immaculate. The Word was place in an unsoiled vessel, as only the Word can be. She was purposed for Wisdom in the fullest. On earth as in heaven. As Wisdom was by the Words side in heaven she had to be on earth. Mary was Christ's first work of Christianity as Wisdom was the Words first work in creation. In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God. Christ is the Word and He spoke into creation Wisdom and poured and apportioned wisdom in full to Mary. She abides at the moment of her yes and can not sin. 1John 3:1-10.Jesus shed his carnal blood to pay the price for the death that was in every man, but that human blood did not give anyone Life. That blood came to him through his mother who was also spiritually dead until she came to the upper room with the 120. Her carnal human blood also had no Life in it at the time of Jesus natural birth. That was the blood of the carnal flesh of Jesus. Because he was clean spiritually, without spot or blemish or any such thing, he could be and was the Lamb of God who died that we might live. But his dying did NOT bring us to Life. It simply opened the closed Door [The Gate into the Garden of Eden wherein was the Tree of Life.] The Life which Jesus was could not come to people who were full of death until a Way had been opened. There is still no room for Life in a closed heart. Without the sacrifice of Jesus there could be only death in men.
After the Door was opened then the Life which Jesus brought was available to the man who was hungry and thirsty for the righteousness of God. The hungry and thirsty had Life enter into them as they ate his spiritual Flesh [the Word] and ate his spiritual blood [the Holy Spirit].
"Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you.
Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day." John 6:53-54
Where does Scripture say that Mary was "spiritually dead" until Pentecost?
MY Bible states that Mary was Kecharitomene, which means “completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace.” It indicates a completed action with permanent result.
Somebody who is perfectly completed in grace cannot be "spiritually dead."
Finally - show me where the Flesh and Blood of Jesus that He talks about in John 6 is His "Word" and the Holy Spirit.
I am afraid I don't understand this. I have never heard that Mary was stabbed in the heart by a sword.no of course not but as foretold a sword pierced her heart - twinc
You are way off! First of all when the Holy Spirit came upon Mary and the power of the Most High overshadowed her she was instantly perfected. Her soul was BORN AGAIN and her flesh made immaculate.
The Word was place in an unsoiled vessel, as only the Word can be. She was purposed for Wisdom in the fullest. On earth as in heaven. As Wisdom was by the Words side in heaven she had to be on earth. Mary was Christ's first work of Christianity as Wisdom was the Words first work in creation. In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God. Christ is the Word and He spoke into creation Wisdom and poured and apportioned wisdom in full to Mary. She abides at the moment of her yes and can not sin. 1John 3:1-10.
Romans 9:20 But who are you, a man to answer back to God? Will what is molded say to its molder, "Why have you made me thus?" Has the potter no right over the clay, to make out of the SAME LUMP one vessel for beauty and another for menial use? Was Mary purposed for beauty? Does she abide in Christ? Wouldn't she have too to carry Him and raise Him and stand by His side through thick and thin.
Now, John the baptist was considered by the Lord, to be the greatest man born OF woman, yet the lest among him is greater than he, how much more Mary. Get over it, she was perfected for the Most BEAUTIFUL gift given to creation.
No bending , just your lack of understanding. Somethings are self explanatory. You are just too stuck in your learning that you can not leave room for the Holy Spirit. It is very simple The Word is pure and Holy. All He touches is Holy. And SHE WAS PERFECTED and PURPOSED FOR BEAUTY Romans 9:20. Are you saying there is a more beautiful gift? Are you saying Romans 9 is wrong? There is nothing to twist. Are you questioning God? Do you abide once saved? Was she anointed By the HOLY SPIRIT? YES OR NO? This is not difficult. Was John HOLY? Was he, from his mothers womb filled with the Holy Spirit? Did He die before Jesus?If she was perfected prior to the upper room, it was as Job was perfected:
"There was a man in the land of Uz, whose name was Job; and that man was perfect and upright, and one that feared God, and eschewed evil." Job 1:1
God was not finished with Job yet, and prior to her upper room experience God not finished with Mary either.
No one was born again until Jesus paid the price to make it a possibility.
You use a lot of words bending the scriptures to fit your argument, but remember the questions of Jesus:
"... What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David.
He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying,
The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?
If David then call him Lord, how is he his son?" Matt 22:42-45
If Jesus was the son of an as you say, of an immaculate mother, why would he be concerned with being the son of David who was certainly not immaculate? Were not dogs were also in the genealogical bloodline of Jesus? On the one hand you would give God the glory, but on the other you would limit the Holy One of Israel.
Don't pursue this farther because you cannot convince me with men's words.
"I have planted, Apollos watered; but God gave the increase.
So then neither is he that planteth any thing, neither he that watereth; but God that giveth the increase: I Cor 3:6-7
it is stated 'by His blood' we are redeemed but it is not clearly stated or understood where He got His human blood from - any comments - twinc
exactly - so like this also for Mama was Mary = co redeemer - twinc
(Ecclesiastes 7:18-20) "It is good that thou shouldest take hold of this; yea, also from this withdraw not thine hand: for he that feareth God shall come forth of them all. {19} Wisdom strengtheneth the wise more than ten mighty men which are in the city. {20} For there is not a just man upon earth, that doeth good, and sinneth not."
(Romans 3:23-24) "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; {24} Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:"
She is not exempt. And she never said that of herself. In the song of Mary she says: '"My soul doth magnify the Lord, and my spirit rejoices in GOD MY SAVIOR" Savior, operative word. She is not co-remptrix. However, there are some mysteries concerning her which have been misrepresented by the RCC and misinterpretations concerning her by Protestants. If you want to debate the HOLINESS of Mary I will go there with you. Where do you want to begin?I don't see Mary being mentioned as a co-redeemer, or of her being exempt from the statement "for all have sinned and come short of the glory of God". A catholic may tell you otherwise, but what bible believing, born again Christian would take what they say seriously? The good Lord knows I wouldn't.
No bending you just your lack understanding. Somethings are self explanatory. You are just too stuck in your learning that you can not leave room for the Holy Spirit. It is very simple The Word is pure and Holy. All He touches is Holy. And SHE WAS PERFECTED and PURPOSED FOR BEAUTY Romans 9:20. Are you saying there is a more beautiful gift? Are you saying Romans 9 is wrong? There is nothing to twist. Are you questioning God? Do you abide once saved? Was she anointed By the HOLY SPIRIT? YES OR NO? This is not difficult.