Marymog
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- Mar 7, 2017
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Thank you VIJ,But God did show us in that His death was not partial but fully. As His resurrection was also not partial, but fully complete. Same as our death in Him is not partial; neither is our resurrection unto Life in Him partial.
Luke 12:49-50
[49] I am come to send fire on the earth; and what will I, if it be already kindled? [50] But I have a baptism to be baptized with; and how am I straitened till it be accomplished!
The focus is not John’s baptism but the one baptism that is shown in His death and resurrection...completely and fully.
Your logic suggest that one has to be completely submerged to obtain a valid baptism!
Over the last 2,000 years there have been millions of Christians who were not baptized by full immersion. Is there baptism not valid?? The Christians that walked/talked with the Apostles did not completely practice immersion. Where is your evidence they got it wrong and you are right?
What about people with medical conditions that can't be fully submerged? Would you deny them baptism?
FULL death and FULL resurrection do not = IMMERSION. That theory is not backed up by scripture.
It seems clear from reading Scripture that immersion is the biblical norm but that it is not an CLEARLY DEFINED norm. Historical writings from the first century Christians make that VERY CLEAR. Scripture, your own Christian history and common sense indicate that the water immersion is not all-important and that other modes may be used as substitutes in exceptional circumstances. God accepts the believer on the basis of his faith in Christ and his desire to obey Him, not on the basis of how much water covered his body when he was baptized. The doctrine that immersion is the only valid mode of baptism appear to be a bit extreme and not based on Scripture.
Mary