Since I am of the opinion that my kjv is sufficient; having been orchestrated by the almighty, sovereign, and loving, hand of the Lord in its bestowal upon us: and that a person can get the unadulterated message of the word of the Lord from the kjv itself, without any necessity of looking back at original languages (which only tends to convolute matters...see 1 Timothy 6:4, 2 Timothy 2:14...through arguments about words)...I feel no need to purchase a New Testament Greek Lexicon, since I can get the understanding of what the scripture teaches simply by reading my Bible in English.
Whoever wrote that was doing the bidding of the devil...because, of course, the devil hates the entire concept of Easter, since he was entirely defeated by the resurrection of our Lord.
The devil also hates the kjv and is attempting to kill two birds with one stone in attacking the word Easter in the kjv, falsely claiming that it should not be in the text.
Fact is, it does properly appear in scripture...because the kjv is a proper translation of scripture.
Wikipedia is a valid source of information; and therefore when it tells me that the Greek word pascha is commonly used today in modern koine Greek, in Greece, to refer to the Easter holiday, I believe it.
And I also believe it when it says that Easter was commonly celebrated by the entire Christian church by the middle of the 2nd Century. Which indicates that it may have indeed been being celebrated by certain in the church by the time Acts 12:4 rolled around. After all, Easter is a celebration of Christ's resurrection; and there is no reason why the disciples wouldn't have started celebrating it from day one.