Odd that, as knowledgeable as you claim to be, you don't know why.
We do good works after salvation because -
The saying is trustworthy, and I want you to insist on these things, so that those who have believed in God may be careful to devote themselves to good works. These things are excellent and profitable for people. Titus 3:8
For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them. Eph 2:10
Let’s read the three verses previous to Titus 3:8...
Titus 3:5-7
Not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy he saved us, by the washing of regeneration, and renewing of the Holy Ghost; Which he shed on us abundantly through Jesus Christ our Saviour; That being justified by his grace, we should be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life.
How were these people saved? By the washing of regeneration.
So, what is.....”THE (not a) washing of regeneration”? Does this not describe being “born again”, raised to a new life, becoming a “new creature”, having sins removed, blotted out, made alive? If not, then why not? Can a person be “regenerated” and still be in their sins?
And, AFTER this “washing of regeneration, Paul describes the process as...”being justified by his grace”!
Wouldn’t this passage above be parallel to Eph 5:26?
That he might sanctify and cleanse it with the washing of water by the word,
To be born again one MUST be born of water and the Spirit. Isn’t that what Paul is describing in Titus 3:5 and Eph 5:26? Again, if not, why not. Why would it be different? Is Paul teaching different doctrines?
Is baptism a “work of righteousness that we do? If it is then faith is too based on Jn 6:28,29 since both faith and baptism are described as “works” of God. Jn 6, Col 2:12.
When is one... “born again”? Before or after water? Jn 3:5
When is one....“raised to walk in newness of life”? Before or after baptism? Rom 6
When is one... “made free from sin? Before or after obedience in Rom 6:17,18 (referring to baptism)
When is one.... “quickened”, “made alive”? Before or after baptism? Col 2:11-13
When is ones.... “sins remitted”? Before or after baptism? Acts 2:38
When is ones.... “sins blotted out”? Before or after repentance and conversion? Acts 3:19
When is ones.... “sins washed away”? Before or after baptism? Acts 22:16
When is one...described to have.. “called on the name of the lord”? Before or after baptism? Acts 22:16
When is one.... “saved”? Mk 16:15,16. Before or after baptism?
You want to talk about taking a verse out of context? Ok. Catholics love James 2:24 but refuse to see anything but that one verse; nothing before, nothing after.
Read this closely:
vs 14-17 What use is it, my brethren, if someone says he has faith but he has no works? Can that faith save him? If a brother or sister is without clothing and in need of daily food, and one of you says to them, “Go in peace, be warmed and be filled,” and yet you do not give them what is necessary for their body, what use is that? Even so faith, if it has no works, is dead, being by itself.
James is talking to his brethren. You know what that means? That means he's talking to believers. They're already saved. He's telling them if they're saved but not doing anything - not bearing fruit - are they really saved? Can that kind of faith save them?
Why did you go back so far? He ties vs 24 to Abraham. People teach that Abraham was saved...”by faith alone”. But this is how James explains it.
James 2:20-23
But wilt thou know, O vain man, that faith without works is dead? Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar? Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect? And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God.
I thought Abraham was “justified by faith”? No, Abraham was justified by “perfect faith”, a faith that does what God says, an obedient faith, not some mental acceptance of God. You cannot be saved without obedience.
There are tons of verses that show one's faith has saved them. Faith with no other qualifier. But catholics need the word "alone".
if we follow your logic then we have to conclude that we can add the word “alone” to any other verse like acts 17:31 that says God commands all men everywhere to REPENT. since there are no other qualifiers we should add the word “ALONE”, therefore being saved by repentance alone without faith. In Lk 13:3. Jesus said...unless you repent you will all like wise perish. This must mean...repent alone?
Paul said...if you believe in your heart and confess with your mouth you will be saved. According to your logic we can “add” the word alone meaning now that repentance is no longer required since it wasn’t mentioned. Uh, oh, we now seem to have a contradiction.
The truth is....the Bible in a number of places from beginning to end tells us we are to NOT add to or take away from the word of God. You are doing just that.
You know what words catholics don't need?
Purgatory
Assumption
Perpetual virgin
Full of Grace (as it supposedly pertains to Mary)
None of that is in the bible but you don't need those words, do you?
I’m not catholic. I think they are a corrupt and horrible religion.
But, there’s no “sinners prayer” in the Bible either which I’m sure you probably believe that’s all one has to do is believe and “ask God for forgiveness”.
Your list is sporadic. You have verses pertaining to believers (Romans 8:1) and non-believers (Acts 2:38)
Every letter written after Acts is to believers. Every verse you are using is written to people who are already saved. He is not telling these people how to be saved. If you want that information you have to go to the book of Acts. Do you want to know what those in Ephesus did to be saved? Then go to the book of Acts and not their letter.
Acts 2:38 tells us how to be saved.
Rom 8:1 explains more about what being “saved” means. If you are “in Christ” then there is now no condemnation. BUT, how did they get “into Christ”? He told us two chapters earlier....they were baptized “into Christ”. So, now both acts 2:38 and Rom 8:1 are in complete harmony.
We are saved by His life, blood, grace but all those are found in One Person. You act like there's 35 (random #) separate steps to salvation.
i was just making the point that you can’t add the word “alone” to any one of those passages. But if we follow your logic then we must since there were no other “qualifiers” in the verse. I’m just highlighting the absurdity of your argument.
There's One and they're all found in Jesus, not us. No works by humans can begin to add to what Christ has done.
Titus 2:14
Who gave himself for us, that he might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works.
Here is the key.....
Christ came to save us or redeem us from our sins.
At what point does the Bible, under the new covenant, say that our sins have been forgiven? The Bible tells us that our sins have been....washed away, remitted, forgiven, made free from, at a certain point in time.
And, WHAT POINT IS THAT? If you will answer this question we will have our answer. Show me how our sins are forgiven at the point we “accept Christ as our saviour”. Nobody on this board has answered this question yet. The reason? Because they know what the answer will mean to their false doctrine.