Why do so many oppose imputed righteousness?

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Ernest T. Bass

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The Bible does not teach that the perfect righteousness of Christ is transferred into the sinner while the sinner sits idle. Yet the Bible does teach the sinner must obey (do God's righteousness) by submitting to God's command to be baptized, (Galatians 3:27). Once baptized into Christ he has put on Christ. In putting on Christ one then is clothed in Christ's perfect righteousness and seen as righteous by God through Christ.

I have seen on various forms the idea of "imputed righteousness" used to promote Luther's faith onlyism in an attempt to find a way to get the sinner to be righteous while the sinner sits idle. IF Christ's perfect righteousness was imputed or transferred to man then he would be as sinless as Christ. But what Christian's righteousness is perfect, flawless?
 
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marks

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Is a Christian still a Christian if they commit a sin?

Does a child of God, someone born from above, remain a child of God if they commit a sin? Any sin? Any lapse of faith or love?

Much love!
 

Enoch111

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IF Christ's perfect righteousness was imputed or transferred to man then he would be as sinless as Christ.
And that is exactly what imputed righteousness means.

For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. (2 Cor 5:21)

Those who have wholeheartedly believed on the Lord Jesus Christ are declared by God to be as perfect as Christ Himself (apart from any merits or works of their own). If that were not so, none could enter Heaven. To refuse to believe this means to refuse to believe God, which is the same as unbelief.
 

marks

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It would appear that large numbers of Christians are opposed to the Gospel truth of imputed righteousness, and sincerely believe that they must add their own righteousness to the righteousness of Christ (or apart from the righteousness of Christ) in order to be accepted into Heaven.

Hi Enoch,

I don't know if people really understand God's holiness, and what it means that we become united with Him. Jesus talked about us being one with God even as the Son is One with the Father.

Being made one with God through our rebirth requires complete and total holiness and righteousness in us, and there is only one way that kind of holiness and righteousness can be ours, and it ain't by our good behavior. What a crock! As if we can be holy enough by our own *anything* to be one with God!

Much love!
 
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Enoch111

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Is a Christian still a Christian if they commit a sin? Does a child of God, someone born from above, remain a child of God if they commit a sin? Any sin? Any lapse of faith or love?
Are you claiming to be sinlessly perfect (in your own walk)?
 
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Enoch111

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Why do so many oppose imputed righteousness?
maybe because many taking His name in vain continue to give vinegar to those who thirst instead of giving Living water?
Looks like someone is rather bitter, having tasted *vinegar*.
 

Enoch111

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Yes, made righteous and declared righteous. Sure, why not? Being justified means being made just by getting straightened out -- it doesn't mean being declared just if you aren't. You have God playing make-believe games.
No, God does not play make-believe games, but if you do not believe Him in this matter, then you do not really believe God. Which sinner gets *straightened out* the moment he believes on Christ?
 

Ernest T. Bass

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And that is exactly what imputed righteousness means.

For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. (2 Cor 5:21)

Those who have wholeheartedly believed on the Lord Jesus Christ are declared by God to be as perfect as Christ Himself (apart from any merits or works of their own). If that were not so, none could enter Heaven. To refuse to believe this means to refuse to believe God, which is the same as unbelief.


Hi.

But no Christian has perfect righteousness for Christians do sin (1 John 1:7-10) unlike Christ Who had no sin.

I posted earlier that the sinner must be obedient by being baptized into Christ, (Gal 3:27) and then he will be in Christ having been clothed in Christ's perfect righteousness. The verse you cite above (2 Cor 5:21) says "....that we might be made the righteousness of God in him." Note that very important key, qualifying, phrase "in Him". We are conditionally made righteous in Christ. No one is made righteous while sitting idle in disobedience outside of Christ.

Romans 5:19 "For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous."

No one is UNCONDITIONALLY made a sinner no more than one is UNCONDITIONALLY made righteous. One must conditionally have faith to be made righteous (Romans 5:1; Romans 10:6) and NT faith includes obedience in repentance, confession and baptism into Christ.
 
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VictoryinJesus

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Looks like someone is rather bitter, having tasted *vinegar*.

probably so but then Mark 16:18 They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; ...
 

Giuliano

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No, God does not play make-believe games, but if you do not believe Him in this matter, then you do not really believe God. Which sinner gets *straightened out* the moment he believes on Christ?
It does not say anywhere that a sinner gets straightened out all at once. Paul said he died daily. So he was being changed daily. He was being justified daily. Is that really so hard to understand?

You seem to have God playing make-believe games. Do not be presumptuous and say I have a problem believing God if I don't believe you. You aren't God.

Read what you cited in your post:

And that is exactly what imputed righteousness means.

For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. (2 Cor 5:21)

Be made = for real. Not make-believe.
 

marks

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The Bible does not teach that the perfect righteousness of Christ is transferred into the sinner while the sinner sits idle.
I don't see where anyone is saying someone sits idle and receives the perfect righteousness of God.

But either that non-idleness is faith, or it is works. By which do we receive the righteousness of Christ? By our faith, or by our works?

Much love!
 

Giuliano

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Really?

Justified over and over?
We can have more than one thing that needs fixing. . . .

What's really good is when we can perceive a sinful urge and not act on it. God can straighten that out without our committing the sin. Ha, repent without doing it.

Remember John said we could be fooling ourselves if we say have no sin? Yet he also says those born of God do not sin? Surely. We can have sinful urges and still not sin; and they can be "justified."
 
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marks

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Justified over and over?

We can have more than one thing that needs fixing. . . .
Indeed! It seems we will always have the flesh in conflict against us, warring against us.

Does this mean that I cease to be justified if I give in to the flesh?

What's really good is when we can perceive a sinful urge and not act on it. God can straighten that out without our committing the sin. Ha, repent without doing it.

As a child of God, repentence is what allows us to not act on sinful urges. We have a new mind, therefore, can think new thoughts, and therefore can avoid those sins.

God even says that every temptation to sin is in reality God's way to prove us (not to Him, He knows) so that we will be the people He wants us to be.

Does this mean that I've lost my justification if I do act on a sinful urge?

Remember John said we could be fooling ourselves if we say have no sin? Yet he also says those born of God do not sin? Surely. We can have sinful urges and still not sin; and they can be "justified."

What do you mean when you say, they can be "justified"? It sounds like you are talking about the "sinful urges" being justified, is that what you mean?

When I speak of our justification, it is our judicial innocence established by God.

Much love!
 
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Giuliano

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Justified over and over?


Indeed! It seems we will always have the flesh in conflict against us, warring against us.

Does this mean that I cease to be justified if I give in to the flesh?
No, the previous things would still be justified. You just failed in that one thing.
As a child of God, repentence is what allows us to not act on sinful urges. We have a new mind, therefore, can think new thoughts, and therefore can avoid those sins.

God even says that every temptation to sin is in reality God's way to prove us (not to Him, He knows) so that we will be the people He wants us to be.
don't think God tempts anyone.

Does this mean that I've lost my justification if I do act on a sinful urge?

What do you mean when you say, they can be "justified"? It sounds like you are talking about the "sinful urges" being justified, is that what you mean?
Yes, what else could be made right?

I can't say I know this for sure; but it's what I believe. If God shows us something is wrong and we do it anyway, we had our chance at having God fix it for us. Maybe we'll get another chance that way, maybe two; but sooner or later, the Holy Spirit will give up on it. That doesn't mean the person is damned. It doesn't undo the other things that were justified. It means the person will have to work it out by himself. God offered to help and turned down -- so the person will have to master that urge on his own. He will have sinned against the Holy Spirit in the matter and cannot expect God's help or forgiveness unless he masters it on his own.

When I speak of our justification, it is our judicial innocence established by God.

Much love!
Without anything actually being fixed? God is going to pretend we are innocent if we still want to sin and do? How miserable Heaven would be if everyone there still wants to sin and can't. Think of spending eternity that way. I don't think it's like that.
 

justbyfaith

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In Romans 4:5, it is written that to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted to him for righteousness.

Therefore the Lord justifies the ungodly person.

However, He does not leave them in that state; for justification is to declare righteous. And it is impossible for God to lie. He calls those things which be not as though they are (Romans 4:17); and in so doing creates a new reality; that the person is righteous in reality and in the practical sense (Matthew 5:6, Romans 5:19, 1 John 3:7).

In imputing righteousness to a man, impartation cannot be far behind.

Yet, I would say that there is a valid teaching that we can glean from Romans 4:5, that God declares us righteous even when we blow it; and that therefore He calls us righteous in a sense that cannot be shaken. If you believe in Jesus, then the Lord counts you as righteous no matter whether you sin or not. Your identity in Christ is that you are the righteousness of the Lord in Him (2 Corinthians 5:21); and this identity is secure and cannot be messed with.

So then, because you are righteous, go and live like it. Your behaviour ought to reflect who God says you are in Him.

It may not happen overnight; but because you are now righteous in Christ, you will begin to live righteously over the fact that your paradigm has shifted and because you have a new identity. You will behave like you believe yourself to truly be in every aspect of your faith.

And obedience is not a condition for salvation; while it is the normal result of being truly saved. If I believe in Christ with a saving faith and die two minutes later, I had no opportunity to do any good works. Do I then go to hell? If obedience is a condition then I do.

However, I don't believe that the Bible teaches us that:

Rom 4:5, But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
Rom 4:6, Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works,

Because I do believe that works translates into obedience; and therefore it is saying here that to him that obeyeth not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. And that God counts righteousness to those who are not obedient.

So then, does this mean that we ought to just sin and not be obedient to the Lord? God forbid! We who have died to sin ought not to live in it any longer.

Everyone is a sinner before they come to faith in Christ.

Therefore, the Lord has to justify sinners or else no one would be justified.

He does not leave them in the state of being sinners (2 Corinthians 5:17).

But the verses in question show that our salvation is not dependent upon our obedience but on a simple faith in what Christ did for us on the Cross.

If anyone receives this and is thankful, they will love Jesus much (Luke 7:36-50, 1 John 4:19, Romans 5:5). And this will result in practical obedience (1 John 3:17-18).

We must not put the cart before the horse. Salvation is through simple faith (alone) in the finished work of Christ upon the Cross; and obedience is the sure result of salvation for those who are not of the same example as the thief on the Cross.
 
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Jane_Doe22

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I don't see where anyone is saying someone sits idle and receives the perfect righteousness of God.

But either that non-idleness is faith, or it is works. By which do we receive the righteousness of Christ? By our faith, or by our works?

Much love!
Again, I think the core of this is you're seeing justification as a discrete one-time event, followed by sanctification. Whereas Guilano is seeing them together as the life long journey.
 

marks

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don't think God tempts anyone.
Remember that peirasmos is translated both test and tempt. God never intends that we sin when confronted with difficulty, whether within or without.

But these tests, if we don't respond in faith, prove to be opportunities to sin.

Much love!