King James Version Only...?

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LC627

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Out of all the theological ideas and topics that I've come across over the years, the issue of KJV only is one that I have not encountered until recently. I do appreciate the KJV and have a few Bibles in that translation, but to say that it is the only true word of God in English seems to be a far stretch. Also, this opens up a can of worms.

a) Do missionaries that travel to foreign countries where English is not the language require the people to learn old school English in order to have God's true Word?

b) Is English the only language that the Bible must be in?

c) What about all the Bible translations before the 1611 KJV?

Those are just a few questions I have regarding this topic. I'd like to ask the members here, what are you thoughts on the subject?
 

CharismaticLady

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Out of all the theological ideas and topics that I've come across over the years, the issue of KJV only is one that I have not encountered until recently. I do appreciate the KJV and have a few Bibles in that translation, but to say that it is the only true word of God in English seems to be a far stretch. Also, this opens up a can of worms.

a) Do missionaries that travel to foreign countries where English is not the language require the people to learn old school English in order to have God's true Word?

b) Is English the only language that the Bible must be in?

c) What about all the Bible translations before the 1611 KJV?

Those are just a few questions I have regarding this topic. I'd like to ask the members here, what are you thoughts on the subject?

Personally, I want all the Words of God I can get, and modern translation, though easier to read, do not have all the words and even verses that are in the KJV. It is not learning old English, it is the amount of God's Word.
 

BarneyFife

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a) Do missionaries that travel to foreign countries where English is not the language require the people to learn old school English in order to have God's true Word?
In the past this has actually been necessary, and many factors play into this question. The budgets of the mission sponsors, the population boom, etc. Today more international translations are available and are getting less and less expensive to print. Progress is being made. It has been prophesied.
b) Is English the only language that the Bible must be in?
Not any more than was the case for Latin before the reformation.
c) What about all the Bible translations before the 1611 KJV?
The KJV was commissioned by the King of England and had a panel of translators (as opposed to one or two, as with the earlier translations), and lots of financial and popular support.
I'd like to ask the members here, what are you thoughts on the subject?
For devotional reading, meditation, and memorization I prefer the King James, because I'm from a generation that didn't have much else, when the newer translations were frowned upon in the Sothern Baptist tradition, in which I grew up. For serious study, I use many, many translations thanks to BibleHub.com. And when I'm dealing with people, I like to use a translation(s) suited to the situation.
 

LC627

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Personally, I want all the Words of God I can get, and modern translation, though easier to read, do not have all the words and even verses that are in the KJV. It is not learning old English, it is the amount of God's Word.

There are a lot more manuscripts that have been found than what was available when the KJV was published. KJV was based on the handful that were available at the time.
 

CharismaticLady

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There are a lot more manuscripts that have been found than what was available when the KJV was published. KJV was based on the handful that were available at the time.

And what additional information do the other manuscripts offer? All I know is that the KJV and NKJV have more than the modern versions like NASB and NIV
 

YeshuaFan1

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Out of all the theological ideas and topics that I've come across over the years, the issue of KJV only is one that I have not encountered until recently. I do appreciate the KJV and have a few Bibles in that translation, but to say that it is the only true word of God in English seems to be a far stretch. Also, this opens up a can of worms.

a) Do missionaries that travel to foreign countries where English is not the language require the people to learn old school English in order to have God's true Word?

b) Is English the only language that the Bible must be in?

c) What about all the Bible translations before the 1611 KJV?

Those are just a few questions I have regarding this topic. I'd like to ask the members here, what are you thoughts on the subject?
Even the translators of the 1611 Kjv saw their version as improving on prior english translations, and that they saw others would revise update and improve theirs in the future!
Kjvo, which Kjv version and which TR is the correct one?
 
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LC627

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And what additional information do the other manuscripts offer? All I know is that the KJV and NKJV have more than the modern versions like NASB and NIV

Older manuscripts have been found since 1611 KJV translation was published. The older the manuscripts the more reliable they are. The verses that are "missing" from modern translations were not found in the oldest manuscripts. So, in reality, nothing is missing at all.
 

CharismaticLady

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Older manuscripts have been found since 1611 KJV translation was published. The older the manuscripts the more reliable they are. The verses that are "missing" from modern translations were not found in the oldest manuscripts. So, in reality, nothing is missing at all.

The problem with the "oldest manuscripts" in existence is that the oldest church fathers quoted scriptures not in them, but are in the KJV. What is the name under which those have been published? I would like to have a copy.
 
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Berserk

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The problem with the "oldest manuscripts" in existence is that the oldest church fathers quoted scriptures not in them, but are in the KJV. What is the name under which those have been published? I would like to have a copy.


Let me give you 2 important examples of how corrupt the KJV's later Greek manuscripts are:

(1) Mark originally ended at 16:8 without a resurrection appearance of Jesus. So various new endings were invented and added to fill this void, one which became the KJV ending. No modern scholar considers that ending original. Its style is completely different from Mark's and one manuscript of Mark even identifies the hoaxer as Aristo of Pella (c. 165 AD)!

(2) Origen from Alexandria (c. 220 ad) and later Caesarea in Israel visited possible sites for Gospel events. When he visited the Jordan River to learn where John baptized Jesus, the Christians there told him they didn't know where "Bethany beyond the Jordan" (John 1:28) was' and they speculated that the real place of baptism was nearby "Bethabara," an Aramaic term for "house of the crossing," and so, the Greek text on which the KJV was based changed the reading to "Bethabara." But Origin admits that early manuscripts of John in his possession read "Bethany" instead! "Bethany" can mean "house of the ferry boat" and rope ferries were used instead of bridges to cross the Jordan. We know this from ancient maps of the area. So John likely baptized Jesus near a rope ferry 50 miles north of where Origen visited, so that people from both sides of the Jordan can conveniently attend his services. There was a rope ferry near "Aenon near Salim" 50 miles north where John stayed with his disciples (
John 3:23).
 

BarneyFife

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And what additional information do the other manuscripts offer? All I know is that the KJV and NKJV have more than the modern versions like NASB and NIV
Pretty sure the NKJV omits phrases, verses, too, compared to KJV. The truth by-and-large can be gleaned from small portions of Scripture. Waldensians or Albigenses (I can't remember which) constantly smuggled pages of Scripture sewed inside their garments at their life's peril before the reformation. Having the entire word of God is a luxury we take for granted, I think. The more plenteous something is, the more human beings devalue it.
 

CharismaticLady

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Let me give you 2 important examples of how corrupt the KJV's later Greek manuscripts are:

(1) Mark originally ended at 16:8 without a resurrection appearance of Jesus. So various new endings were invented and added to fill this void, one which became the KJV ending. No modern scholar considers that ending original. Its style is completely different from Mark's and one manuscript of Mark even identifies the hoaxer as Aristo of Pella (c. 165 AD)!

(2) Origen from Alexandria (c. 220 ad) and later Caesarea in Israel visited possible sites for Gospel events. When he visited the Jordan River to learn where John baptized Jesus, the Christians there told him they didn't know where "Bethany beyond the Jordan" (John 1:28) was' and they speculated that the real place of baptism was nearby "Bethabara," an Aramaic term for "house of the crossing," and so, the Greek text on which the KJV was based changed the reading to "Bethabara." But Origin admits that early manuscripts of John in his possession read "Bethany" instead! "Bethany" can mean "house of the ferry boat" and rope ferries were used instead of bridges to cross the Jordan. We know this from ancient maps of the area. So John likely baptized Jesus near a rope ferry 50 miles north of where Origen visited, so that people from both sides of the Jordan can conveniently attend his services. There was a rope ferry near "Aenon near Salim" 50 miles north where John stayed with his disciples (
John 3:23).

I don't know where they got the last 12 verses of Mark then, because it is full of the signature of God. That being a scientific test that goes beyond the possibility that it was produced by anything other than God, or more than a million super computers.
 

CharismaticLady

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Pretty sure the NKJV omits phrases, verses, too, compared to KJV. The truth by-and-large can be gleaned from small portions of Scripture. Waldensians or Albigenses (I can't remember which) constantly smuggled pages of Scripture sewed inside their garments at their life's peril before the reformation. Having the entire word of God is a luxury we take for granted, I think. The more plenteous something is, the more human beings devalue it.

I've never seen a comparison of the KJV vs. NKJV, but I have against KJV and modern versions based on Westcott and Hort's translation.
 
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Enoch111

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Out of all the theological ideas and topics that I've come across over the years, the issue of KJV only is one that I have not encountered until recently.
I have already posted on this subject, and all your questions have been answered. So please read this article slowly and carefully and believe what it says is true.

King James Only
July 31, 2019 (first published January 20, 1996)
David Cloud, Way of Life Literature, P.O. Box 610368, Port Huron, MI 48061
866-295-4143, [email protected]

King James Only
 
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CharismaticLady

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There is no question that the last twelve verse of Mark are genuine. Just ignore the naysayers and ALL modern bible versions. They are all corrupt, bar none.

I just looked up those verses in the index of the Ante-Nicene Fathers and there are many quotes.
 
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BarneyFife

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No modern scholar considers that ending original.
Modern = Good, then? I don't think so. Modern scholars run the gamut of fidelity to God's ability to preserve His word. Some of the most popular modern Biblical "scholars" are practically skeptics.
 
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BarneyFife

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