Paul never corrects the Thessalonians’ understanding of what the day of the Lord is. Therefore, any arguments about them misunderstanding the nature of the day are not grounded in Paul’s actual response, and are irrelevant.
The whole premise is not to be deceived that it already happened, not that they didn’t know what it entailed.
That's your opinion, but if you're honest, you'd admit there's no way to prove that. If they could be deceived into thinking that the day of the Lord had already come, then why couldn't they be deceived into thinking the day of the Lord entailed something different than what Paul taught? He had already told them that certain things had to happen first before the day of the Lord, so if they could be convinced that he was wrong about that, why couldn't they be convinced that he was wrong about everything he said that related to the day of the Lord?
If Paul meant an unmistakable cosmic consummation, then appealing to prerequisite signs (man of sin/apostasy) is illogical, and even absurd.
That's what you think, but that is absolutely not necessarily the case. As I've pointed out, and as you are not addressing, he could have been pointing out how absurd it is to think that the day of the Lord already occurred when the things that were to happen before the day of the Lord had not even occurred yet. You have decided what Paul supposedly should have said, but that's you. I'm not convinced by your argument at all.
The event itself would settle the matter immediately.
Of course it would have, but him reminding them about the things that had to happen first having not yet happened also settles the matter immediately. We debate what those things mean, but Paul talked to them about those things in person and most likely explained what those things mean so that they wouldn't have to speculate and debate about what those things mean like we do now because we weren't there when Paul explained these things in person, which he most likely did with more clarity and more detail than what is found in 2 Thessalonians 2.
But Paul instead argues from sequence: “That day will not come unless…” That strongly suggests he viewed the day as something whose arrival could likely be mistaken or falsely claimed, indicating it’s not necessarily a cosmic global event.
Another opinion of yours that I don't find to be convincing. Could they be mistaken about the destruction of Jerusalem? Maybe for a short time, but it wouldn't be too hard for them to confirm whether it actually happened or not. I highly doubt that Paul was intending to tell them to not be deceived by anyone claiming that Jerusalem had been destroyed, as if they could be deceived by that for long. And, as I pointed out to you already before, why would they be shaken in mind and troubled by hearing about that when it was prophesied to happen? They wouldn't have been.
70 ad marked the collapse of the primary covenantal and institutional power structure that had driven much of the earliest opposition to Christianity in the apostolic period.
In Acts 17, who were the primary antagonists causing persecution amongst the Thessalonians?
So what? Those particular Jews who were persecuting the Thessalonian believers would not have been killed or taken captive like the ones in Jerusalem were, so what would keep them from continuing to oppose Christianity? I'm sure they most likely did.
I said multiple times they are most likely the same event in Paul’s mind. Instead My argument has always been - are 1 and 2 Thessalonians the same event as the OD?
You need to be willing to address what event was Paul talking about in passages like 1 Thessalonians 4:14-5:3, 2 Thessalonians 1:7-10 and 2 Thessalonians 2:1-12 in terms of his references to Christ's coming and His own being gathered to Him "in the air"? Do you really think it's even possible that Christ's second coming with the resurrected dead in Christ and those who are alive and remain being caught up to meet Him in the air has already occurred? If so, why and how? If not, then why would you think that Paul was talking about things related to 70 AD in 2 Thessalonians 2?
Christ said this generation will not pass away until “all these things” occur. Grammatically, the antecedents to “these things” include the abomination of desolation, great tribulation, the gathering etc.
This is where you go astray. No, "all these things" do not refer to literally all of the things that Jesus had previously mentioned. That would include His second coming and the gathering of the elect. That's complete nonsense. The gathering of the elect refers to the gatheringthose who are in church to meet Jesus in the air. That clearly has not yet occurred. All these things don't even includes the wars, rumors of wars, earthquakes and pestilences that Jesus mentioned. Those were only the beginning of birth pains or sorrow and not things that would indicate that His second coming was near.
Additionally, The OD is not the only place in Matthew that mentions a gathering after the destruction of the city - the parable of the wedding feast also mentions this.
Jesus mentioned a gathering of the elect by angels. So, it's ONLY a gathering of the elect and no one else. Yet, that's not what we see in the parable of the wedding invitation.
Matthew 22:11 “But when the king came in to see the guests, he saw a man there who did not have on a wedding garment. 12 So he said to him, ‘Friend, how did you come in here without a wedding garment?’ And he was speechless. 13 Then the king said to the servants, ‘Bind him hand and foot, take him away, and cast
him into outer darkness; there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.’
Jesus refers here to an example of someone who was part of the gathering for the wedding, yet the man didn't have the proper wedding garment on. He was not elect. So, the parable does not refer to the gathering of the elect by the angels that will occur when Jesus comes again. That gathering will be only of the elect and we will be gathered and caught up to meet Christ in the air when He comes.
That being said, If Paul’s gathering in 2 Thessalonians is the same gathering into the wedding hall post the destruction of the city, then the “shaken in mind” could refer to the Thessalonians believing they missed redemption and cannot be gathered into the wedding hall.
Can you please make up your mind whether or not you believe that the gathering Paul referred to in 2 Thessalonians 2:1 is the same gathering to meet Christ in the air that he wrote about in 1 Thessalonians 4:14-17? You said earlier that most likely is the case, so how in the world does Matthew 22:1-13 describe people being gathered to meet Jesus in the air at His second coming? Where does the parable refer to the dead in Christ being resurrected and then gathered to Christ? Nowhere. You are trying to relate unrelated passages.
