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I see "you will not be caught up together (That is the day) until the falling away occurs".If I read the two letters back to back . . .
1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 (KJV)
15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (KJV)
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away (apostasia/departure, "away from standing") first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
Much love!
Didn't you agree that it was a departure from the faith?In anawer to those that say apostasia CAN NEVER MEAN DEPARTURE
From google;
"Legal Defection: Diodorus Siculus used the concept of apostasia to describe slaves running away or deserting their masters. In this context, it literally meant stepping out from under the legal authority of the household (oikos)."
"Because the root meaning of the word relates to physical separation or moving away, Greek scientific and philosophical traditions applied it to natural phenomena:
• Hippocratic Medicine: The famous physician Hippocrates used the closely related noun apostasis (ἀπόστασις) to describe a medical abscess. In ancient Greek medical theory, this meant bodily fluids or pus "departing" or swelling away from their normal, healthy location in the tissue"
"Aristotelian Meteorology: In later Greek commentary on Aristotle's work Meteora, the term was used to describe evaporation—specifically the physical departure or disappearance of water molecules as a material stiffened"
Don't bother looking at the context or anything. God forbid that you ever do that. In 2 Thessalonians 2 Paul talked about wickedness no longer being restrained at some point before the second coming of Christ. He indicated during that time: "The coming of the lawless one is according to the working of Satan, with all power, signs, and lying wonders, and with all unrighteous deception among those who perish, because they did not receive the love of the truth, that they might be saved.". So, this is a time period during which wickedness and the power of Satan is unrestrained "with all power, signs, and lying wonders, and with all unrighteous deception among those who perish". It makes complete sense that a mass falling away from the faith could happen during a time when there is a significant increase in deception and wickedness.Be careful using a word defined as "departure" in the context of departure.
It can only mean "backsliding."
App = back
Ostasy= sliding.
Well, my copy of the postribber workbook, that is never wrong ....said so.
Read the rest of 2 Thessalonians 2. Would you not expect that a time of unrestrained wickedness involving "the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders, And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish" (2 Thess 2:9-10) would include many people falling away from the faith?If I read the two letters back to back . . .
1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 (KJV)
15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.
2 Thessalonians 2:3 (KJV)
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away (apostasia/departure, "away from standing") first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
Much love!
Yes, the elect will be gathered in some way at the end of the tribulation.If I'm a Christian? LOL. There is no such thing as the imaginary pre-trib rapture, so I would die of shock if such a thing ever occurred. Jesus made it clear that we will be gathered "immediately after the tribulation of those days" (Matthew 24:29-31). I will take His word over yours every time.
LOL. In some way? Paul told us in what way in 1 Thessalonians 4:14-17. We will be gathered to meet the Lord "in the air" after He descends from heaven.Yes, the elect will be gathered in some way at the end of the tribulation.
It doesn't, but that proves nothing. Do you believe that Matthew 24:29-31 and Revelation 19:11-21 both refer to the same event, namely the second coming or return of Jesus Christ? If so, where does Revelation 19:11-21 reference Jesus sending out His angels to gather the elect? Nowhere, of course. Do you see how silly that kind of argument is? Not every passage relating to the return of Christ contains all of the same details.just curious...where does 1 Thes 4 say Jesus will send out His angels to do the gathering and just prior to that the raising of the dead?
No, not a little ol’ chip that’ll become chipped in no time or yet another tattoo that’ll be added to your skin that’s already covered with them. The mark of the beast is the great apostasy! What’s the great apostasy? It’s worshiping the false christ, you know, the one who comes before Jesus, the one who promises to take everyone away in his shiny new rapturemobile! (I jest to make my point.).Similar to a tattoo, with a chip.
It is already available in animals in a crude form.
Undoubtedly it will carry the image of the fake Christ.
Might have a slogan similar to "my all for him"
IOW to make it a form of worship.
Soon to come in an internment camp for every city.
That's not what the verse says, though.( This cannot be the rapture because Paul said that the Lord will not descend UNTIL this event happens)
"That day shall not come"I see "you will not be caught up together (That is the day) until the falling away occurs".
You have it as "you will not be caught together until you are caught up together"
doesn't make sense that way
That's exactly what it saysThat's not what the verse says, though.
He was speaking of the day he mentioned in his previous letter. Some were saying that resurrection had already passed and Paul assured them it hadn't. That's the foreshadowing for the context of 2Th 2"That day shall not come"
Which day is the Apostle referring to?
2 Thessalonians 2:1-3 (KJV)
1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
Depending on your Bible version, this reads "the day of Christ", or, "the day of the LORD". Is this referring to the Day of the LORD, that is, the day of darkness and judgment? Or is this referring to "rapture day"?
Paul was alerting them to not be troubled by those who were saying this day had arrived. If it was rapture day, why would they be troubled? But if it were judgment day, that would be troubling indeed.
They would not have any distress if the Day of judgement and plagues had passed, that would have been a relief. They were being told that the resurrection that Paul spoke of in 1th 4 had passed. It was a errant teaching in the churches at the time.Let's look a bit at what he said.
Concerning being gathered to Christ (raptured), don't be upset because someone is telling you the day of Christ has arrived (is here). That day (the day of Christ) won't come except the departure come first, and the man of sin be revealed.
Many read this as if the antecedent of "that day" were "our gathering to Him", but that is not named as a "day", rather, it is an "event". There is a day named, this being "the day of Christ/the Lord". That is the day that will not come except the departure and revealing come first.
If this day were in fact "rapture day", then why would they be troubled when someone says it's here? They would be troubled by someone telling them it was the Day of the LORD, judgment and plagues, and that would be troubling indeed! So Paul is reassuring them that the ones saying such things were wrong, because these other things hadn't happened yet.
Much love!

No that's not correct.They would not have any distress if the Day of judgement and plagues had passed, that would have been a relief. They were being told that the resurrection that Paul spoke of in 1th 4 had passed. It was a errant teaching in the churches at the time.
Tell me something . . . how would you know this is "the" apostasy? Of all the apostasy in the centuries past, and all the apostasy happening now, what is it that would say to you, "this is it"?Paul assured them it wouldn't until a falling away happened and the leader of that apostacy would be revealed.
There is no way to wrest and twist 2Th 2:3 into support for a pre-trib rapture.No that's not correct.
"As though that day had arrived/is now here" Not, had passed.
Much love!
No need to wrest anything, just follow along the language, as I've been showing.There is no way to wrest and twist 2Th 2:3 into support for a pre-trib rapture.
You did not address my post . . . what should I gather from that?There is no way to wrest and twist 2Th 2:3 into support for a pre-trib rapture.
Both. The rapture will occur on the day of the Lord. In verse 1, Paul refers to "the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" and "our gathering unto him". That's one event. In verse 2 he refers to that event as "the day of Christ" or "the day of the Lord". In verse 3 he says that day (the day that Jesus comes and we are gathered to Him (the day of Christ/the Lord) will not come until after there is first a falling away and the man of sin is revealed.That's not what the verse says, though.
"That day shall not come"
Which day is the Apostle referring to?
2 Thessalonians 2:1-3 (KJV)
1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;
Depending on your Bible version, this reads "the day of Christ", or, "the day of the LORD". Is this referring to the Day of the LORD, that is, the day of darkness and judgment? Or is this referring to "rapture day"?
He didn't want them to be fooled by any communication claiming to be from them (Paul or any of those who were in his ministry) saying that the day of the Lord was at hand. That would contradict what Paul had taught them in person, which included the fact that the falling away and man of sin being revealed had to happen first.Paul was alerting them to not be troubled by those who were saying this day had arrived. If it was rapture day, why would they be troubled? But if it were judgment day, that would be troubling indeed.
That proves nothing. It's an event that will happen on a certain unknown day in the future at an unknown hour.Let's look a bit at what he said.
Concerning being gathered to Christ (raptured), don't be upset because someone is telling you the day of Christ has arrived (is here). That day (the day of Christ) won't come except the departure come first, and the man of sin be revealed.
Many read this as if the antecedent of "that day" were "our gathering to Him", but that is not named as a "day", rather, it is an "event".
You think Paul, in verse 2, somehow changed the subject he had just introduced in verse 1. That makes no sense. No, in verse 2 he was simply referring to the day that Jesus will come and we are gathered to Him as "the day of Christ" or "the day of the Lord".There is a day named, this being "the day of Christ/the Lord". That is the day that will not come except the departure and revealing come first.
They would be troubled if someone said that they missed the rapture since they would think they were about to have Christ's wrath come down on them, as Paul said would happen to unbelievers on the day Christ comes again (1 Thess 4:14-5:3), but Paul reminded them that day could not possibly come before certain things happen first.If this day were in fact "rapture day", then why would they be troubled when someone says it's here? They would be troubled by someone telling them it was the Day of the LORD, judgment and plagues, and that would be troubling indeed! So Paul is reassuring them that the ones saying such things were wrong, because these other things hadn't happened yet.
Ahhh. The question is, do you really understand who is the man of sin?
Exactly how will they be decevied with? Not only the pre-tribulation rapture, but also the false doctrine of as "false messiah", or a man with supernatural power, like you claimed? We shall see about that!
Matthew 24:23-26 by Lord Jesus. The 24th verse uses Greek pseudochristos which Dr. James Strong defined as 'a spurious Messiah' (NT:5580).Oh you said, "remember"? Ok, since you failed to show me the verse where I have asked you a while ago, where in the Scripture that there will be a "false messiah"? Chapter and verse, please!
Thanks precious friend, appreciate your valuable input.
imho, God's Sound Doctrine Cannot Be Established By "using one verse only" ( as Many think? ),....