Stop Believing the "Any Moment" Myth

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rebuilder 454

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In anawer to those that say apostasia CAN NEVER MEAN DEPARTURE
From google;
"Legal Defection: Diodorus Siculus used the concept of apostasia to describe slaves running away or deserting their masters. In this context, it literally meant stepping out from under the legal authority of the household (oikos)."

"Because the root meaning of the word relates to physical separation or moving away, Greek scientific and philosophical traditions applied it to natural phenomena:
• Hippocratic Medicine: The famous physician Hippocrates used the closely related noun apostasis (ἀπόστασις) to describe a medical abscess. In ancient Greek medical theory, this meant bodily fluids or pus "departing" or swelling away from their normal, healthy location in the tissue"

"Aristotelian Meteorology: In later Greek commentary on Aristotle's work Meteora, the term was used to describe evaporation—specifically the physical departure or disappearance of water molecules as a material stiffened"
 

shepherdsword

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If I read the two letters back to back . . .

1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 (KJV)
15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.

2 Thessalonians 2:3 (KJV)
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away (apostasia/departure, "away from standing") first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

Much love!
I see "you will not be caught up together (That is the day) until the falling away occurs".
You have it as "you will not be caught together until you are caught up together"
doesn't make sense that way
 

shepherdsword

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In anawer to those that say apostasia CAN NEVER MEAN DEPARTURE
From google;
"Legal Defection: Diodorus Siculus used the concept of apostasia to describe slaves running away or deserting their masters. In this context, it literally meant stepping out from under the legal authority of the household (oikos)."

"Because the root meaning of the word relates to physical separation or moving away, Greek scientific and philosophical traditions applied it to natural phenomena:
• Hippocratic Medicine: The famous physician Hippocrates used the closely related noun apostasis (ἀπόστασις) to describe a medical abscess. In ancient Greek medical theory, this meant bodily fluids or pus "departing" or swelling away from their normal, healthy location in the tissue"

"Aristotelian Meteorology: In later Greek commentary on Aristotle's work Meteora, the term was used to describe evaporation—specifically the physical departure or disappearance of water molecules as a material stiffened"
Didn't you agree that it was a departure from the faith?
 

Spiritual Israelite

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Be careful using a word defined as "departure" in the context of departure.
It can only mean "backsliding."
App = back
Ostasy= sliding.
Well, my copy of the postribber workbook, that is never wrong ....said so.
Don't bother looking at the context or anything. God forbid that you ever do that. In 2 Thessalonians 2 Paul talked about wickedness no longer being restrained at some point before the second coming of Christ. He indicated during that time: "The coming of the lawless one is according to the working of Satan, with all power, signs, and lying wonders, and with all unrighteous deception among those who perish, because they did not receive the love of the truth, that they might be saved.". So, this is a time period during which wickedness and the power of Satan is unrestrained "with all power, signs, and lying wonders, and with all unrighteous deception among those who perish". It makes complete sense that a mass falling away from the faith could happen during a time when there is a significant increase in deception and wickedness.

And other scripture supports there being a time of mass apostasy before Jesus returns as well.

Matthew 24:10 10 At that time many will turn away from the faith and will betray and hate each other, 11 and many false prophets will appear and deceive many people. 12 Because of the increase of wickedness, the love of most will grow cold, 13 but the one who stands firm to the end will be saved.

1 Timothy 4:1 The Spirit clearly says that in later times some will abandon the faith and follow deceiving spirits and things taught by demons. 2 Such teachings come through hypocritical liars, whose consciences have been seared as with a hot iron.

So, the evidence strongly points towards Paul saying in 2 Thessalonians 2:3 that a mass departure/falling away from the faith and the revealing of the man of sin will occur before Jesus comes and we are gathered to Him (before the rapture). He was not saying that the church would depart the earth before Jesus returns. He is saying that a departure/falling away from faith in the church and revealing of the man of sin will occur before Jesus returns. But, since that contradicts pre-trib, you have to try to make the departure Paul referenced refer to the rapture instead. The context does not support that. He was talking about what had to happen first before Christ's coming and our gathering to Him occurs.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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If I read the two letters back to back . . .

1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 (KJV)
15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.

2 Thessalonians 2:3 (KJV)
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away (apostasia/departure, "away from standing") first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

Much love!
Read the rest of 2 Thessalonians 2. Would you not expect that a time of unrestrained wickedness involving "the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders, And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish" (2 Thess 2:9-10) would include many people falling away from the faith?

Also, Paul was talking about things that would occur before the rapture occurs. He referenced the rapture in 2 Thessalonians 2:1 by referring to the coming of Christ and our being gathered to Him.. Then in verse 3 he references two things that had to happen first before Christ's coming and our being gathered to Him occurs. Why would he say that the rapture had to occur before the rapture occurs? Obviously, he wouldn't have done that.
 

CrowCross

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If I'm a Christian? LOL. There is no such thing as the imaginary pre-trib rapture, so I would die of shock if such a thing ever occurred. Jesus made it clear that we will be gathered "immediately after the tribulation of those days" (Matthew 24:29-31). I will take His word over yours every time.
Yes, the elect will be gathered in some way at the end of the tribulation.

just curious...where does 1 Thes 4 say Jesus will send out His angels to do the gathering and just after to that the raising of the dead?
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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Yes, the elect will be gathered in some way at the end of the tribulation.
LOL. In some way? Paul told us in what way in 1 Thessalonians 4:14-17. We will be gathered to meet the Lord "in the air" after He descends from heaven.

just curious...where does 1 Thes 4 say Jesus will send out His angels to do the gathering and just prior to that the raising of the dead?
It doesn't, but that proves nothing. Do you believe that Matthew 24:29-31 and Revelation 19:11-21 both refer to the same event, namely the second coming or return of Jesus Christ? If so, where does Revelation 19:11-21 reference Jesus sending out His angels to gather the elect? Nowhere, of course. Do you see how silly that kind of argument is? Not every passage relating to the return of Christ contains all of the same details.
 
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Sel@h

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Similar to a tattoo, with a chip.
It is already available in animals in a crude form.
Undoubtedly it will carry the image of the fake Christ.
Might have a slogan similar to "my all for him"
IOW to make it a form of worship.

Soon to come in an internment camp for every city.
No, not a little ol’ chip that’ll become chipped in no time or yet another tattoo that’ll be added to your skin that’s already covered with them. The mark of the beast is the great apostasy! What’s the great apostasy? It’s worshiping the false christ, you know, the one who comes before Jesus, the one who promises to take everyone away in his shiny new rapturemobile! (I jest to make my point.).

Revelation 13:4-9 (KJV) 4 And they worshipped the dragon which gave power unto the beast: and they worshipped the beast, saying, Who [is] like unto the beast? who is able to make war with him? 5 And there was given unto him a mouth speaking great things and blasphemies; and power was given unto him to continue forty [and] two months. 6 And he opened his mouth in blasphemy against God, to blaspheme his name, and his tabernacle, and them that dwell in heaven. 7 And it was given unto him to make war with the saints, and to overcome them: and power was given him over all kindreds, and tongues, and nations. 8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. 9 If any man have an ear, let him hear.
 

marks

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( This cannot be the rapture because Paul said that the Lord will not descend UNTIL this event happens)
That's not what the verse says, though.

I see "you will not be caught up together (That is the day) until the falling away occurs".
You have it as "you will not be caught together until you are caught up together"
doesn't make sense that way
"That day shall not come"

Which day is the Apostle referring to?

2 Thessalonians 2:1-3 (KJV)
1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

Depending on your Bible version, this reads "the day of Christ", or, "the day of the LORD". Is this referring to the Day of the LORD, that is, the day of darkness and judgment? Or is this referring to "rapture day"?

Paul was alerting them to not be troubled by those who were saying this day had arrived. If it was rapture day, why would they be troubled? But if it were judgment day, that would be troubling indeed.

Let's look a bit at what he said.

Concerning being gathered to Christ (raptured), don't be upset because someone is telling you the day of Christ has arrived (is here). That day (the day of Christ) won't come except the departure come first, and the man of sin be revealed.

Many read this as if the antecedent of "that day" were "our gathering to Him", but that is not named as a "day", rather, it is an "event". There is a day named, this being "the day of Christ/the Lord". That is the day that will not come except the departure and revealing come first.

If this day were in fact "rapture day", then why would they be troubled when someone says it's here? They would be troubled by someone telling them it was the Day of the LORD, judgment and plagues, and that would be troubling indeed! So Paul is reassuring them that the ones saying such things were wrong, because these other things hadn't happened yet.

Much love!
 

shepherdsword

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That's not what the verse says, though.
That's exactly what it says
"That day shall not come"

Which day is the Apostle referring to?

2 Thessalonians 2:1-3 (KJV)
1 Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,
2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.
3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;

Depending on your Bible version, this reads "the day of Christ", or, "the day of the LORD". Is this referring to the Day of the LORD, that is, the day of darkness and judgment? Or is this referring to "rapture day"?

Paul was alerting them to not be troubled by those who were saying this day had arrived. If it was rapture day, why would they be troubled? But if it were judgment day, that would be troubling indeed.
He was speaking of the day he mentioned in his previous letter. Some were saying that resurrection had already passed and Paul assured them it hadn't. That's the foreshadowing for the context of 2Th 2
Let's look a bit at what he said.

Concerning being gathered to Christ (raptured), don't be upset because someone is telling you the day of Christ has arrived (is here). That day (the day of Christ) won't come except the departure come first, and the man of sin be revealed.

Many read this as if the antecedent of "that day" were "our gathering to Him", but that is not named as a "day", rather, it is an "event". There is a day named, this being "the day of Christ/the Lord". That is the day that will not come except the departure and revealing come first.

If this day were in fact "rapture day", then why would they be troubled when someone says it's here? They would be troubled by someone telling them it was the Day of the LORD, judgment and plagues, and that would be troubling indeed! So Paul is reassuring them that the ones saying such things were wrong, because these other things hadn't happened yet.

Much love!
They would not have any distress if the Day of judgement and plagues had passed, that would have been a relief. They were being told that the resurrection that Paul spoke of in 1th 4 had passed. It was a errant teaching in the churches at the time.

2 Ti 2:17-18 And their word will eat as doth a canker: of whom is Hymenaeus and Philetus; Who concerning the truth have erred, saying that the resurrection is past already; and overthrow the faith of some.

THAT is what distress them. Paul assured them it wouldn't until a falling away happened and the leader of that apostacy would be revealed.

Here is what AT Robertson has to say:
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