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That's really not the force of the clause though. It's not the availability of Mercy that's in question or being answered, but rather what God does, or will do (ie: Gk voice: active) to those He's concluded (lit: shut together) in unbelief.

Ask yourself: Was there ever a time when you did not believe the Gospel? We could also use Paul as an example here too. Paul, when these words were spoken, was an unbeliever (aka: Saul). And the text's you've given specifically state the following, concerning Paul, and all like him: Joh...

I think "will show mercy" is really the better translation for the purpose clause. Although the verb is in the subjunctive mood, potentiality or possibility of God showing mercy to all is really not being called into question. The emphasis of the clause is to answer the question as to why God...

LOL...wonderful post!

That the OT language of the text is typological, having an allegorical interpretation (or understanding) in the NT. You're perhaps thinking of the phrase "spiritual language" with reference to speaking in tongues. I wasn't using it in that sense. Here is an example that Paul gives...

The language of: "Jacob have I loved, but Esau have I hated" (Rom 9:13) is allegorical and spiritual. It's speaking of spirit (Jacob) vs. flesh (Esau). And it's allegory is true for all of us. The same can be said regarding Cain (flesh) vs. Abel (spirit), Ishmael (flesh) vs. Isaac (spirit)...

You really do not understand imputation, nor did I infer that our sin is somehow imputed or injected inside Christ. I'm not sure what that even means... And it's painfully obvious you do not understand justification either. Justification (that is: to declare righteous) is always objective...

It's obvious you don't understand the biblical concept of imputation or how God was in Christ justifying and reconciling us to Himself. When Jesus hung on the cross, our sins were imputed to Him. And His death thereby acquitted us of quilt and condemnation and justified us (the soul)...

Sin isn't really "transferred over", but rather reckoned, accounted and charged as such against the soul. Your understanding of what imputation means is really not how scripture uses the term. For lack of a better way to explain it: Think of the soul as a compound consisting of two elements...

The sins of the flesh are imputed (counted as such) against the soul and consequently the soul proper is reckoned as being "ungodly", stained and spotted as such. For a little leaven leavens the whole lump (Gal 5:9). However, Christ died to justify and save the soul according to the spirit...

An exegesis that conflates flesh and spirit. An exegesis that believes it's referent is the soul without division from the spirit (Heb 4:12). It's not. It's referent is the soul according to the flesh, sans spirit. When scripture speaks of Christ dying for the ungodly (Rom 5:6), in-order to...

The scriptures you've shown are fine. It's your exegesis that is wrong.

I've referenced (using scripture) who He is that justifies the ungodly in post #116, and why He was able to justify the ungodly in post #126. There is really not much else I can say regarding this matter. Either you're being purposely obtuse or you're dead to the spirit (ie: the natural man...

Of course there is. And the example that Paul puts forth concerning Abraham was not only written for Abraham's sake but also for ours (Rom 4:23-24).

Jesus died for the ungodly (Rom 5:6). And the very reason He can declare the ungodly to be justified (Rom 4:5). Jesus did not justify the ungodly for gifts, but rather to demonstrate God's love (Rom 5:8). Do you really not know this?

I don't think you're grasping Paul's arguments in Rom. chapter 4, though. God calls the things that be not as though they were (Rom 4:17), and that is what Abraham believed. He saw by faith what he was unable to see by sight. Abraham believed the declarative promise of God, without having to...

That's the performance of the oath (or "promise") made to Abraham, not the oath, per se. Read it, it's right there in the text: Gen 26:3 Sojourn in this land, and I will be with thee, and will bless thee; for unto thee, and unto thy seed, I will give all these countries, and I will perform...

In Gen 15:5-6, the example Paul is using in Romans chapter 4, the "promise" God made to Abraham proceeded Abraham's faith therein. Whatever intrinsic righteousness you believe Abraham had, it was not conditional to God making the promise.

Jesus. Jesus is declaring righteous the ungodly. And, He died for all the ungodly. Not some ungodly, but all the ungodly (Rom 3:10). And, as such, all are justified to life (Rom 5:18), freely so by grace (Rom 3:24). However, not all have it revealed to them, until faith. That's the concept...

It seems some, or even most, of the posts are conflating the "objective" declaration of justification with it's "subjective" imputation. Justification, like forgiveness and reconciliation, is really a two sided coin. Being both objective and subjective. This concept is taught by the example...