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What does this have to do with the issue in how you define water baptism in a way the Bible does not?

You keep making assumptions/assertions YOUR definiton of water baptism is in the Bible but continue to fail to point out where in the NT your definition can be found. "It's in the Bible" is NOT pointing out the specific book, chapter and verse. Anyone can claim an idea is "in the BIble' but...

This is not about "exact words" but about how you DEFINE water baptism in a way the Bible does not. Nowhere does the NT gospel teach one is saved BEFORE one has been water baptized but this is what you are attempting to read into it with your definition of water baptism. Again, water baptism...

https://christiancourier.com/articles/does-psalm-58-teach-original-sin Does Psalm 58 Teach “Original Sin”? Wayne Jackson We are quite familiar with Psalm 58. Verses 3-6 read as follows: The first thing that the careful Bible student must observe is the fact that this text is a part of that...

Psalm 51:5 Analyzed Having shown what Psalm 51: 5 cannot mean, we now turn to some possible views of the passage that do not violate portions of Scripture found elsewhere. (1) Since Psalm 51 is one of David’s penitent psalms revealing the anguish resulting from his adulterous conduct with...

https://christiancourier.com/articles/original-sin-and-a-misapplied-passage Original Sin and a Misapplied Passage Wayne Jackson This essay addresses a verse commonly used in support of the false doctrine of original sin. The doctrine of original sin—the notion that one is born into this...

Yet you post Psalms 51:5 and make David a sinner at conception. Now you quote Psa 58:3 that has one being a sinner from birth. Yet conception and birth are two distinct points separated by about nine months. So which is it? Is one conceived a sinner or born a sinner? If one is conceived a...

Yes, the idea of original sin is man-made. The IDEA of original sin is not found in the BIble the PROBLEM of Christ being born with original sin is not found in the BIble and no SOLUTION to this problem is not found in the BIble. If original sin were true, then Christ being born with sin...

You are unable to find in the Bible where obedience to God's will is called work of merit, hence you make a personal attack rather than dealing with the subject at hand.

David did not say he was born a sinner in Psa 51:5, men read that idea into the verse...see how the NIV perverted this verse compared to accurate trnaslations and therefore the NIV is a corrupt translation of it. Your wrong interpretation of Psa 51:5. contradicts how the BIble defines sin per...

You have not shown where the Bible defines water baptism as you do.

No verse sat sbaptism with the HS is the one baptism of Eph 4:5. You make the CLAIM it is but provided no proof. Further more the one baptism of Eph :4:5 saves and no verse says baptism with the HS saves. Also if baptism with the HS saves and God fails to baptized one with the HS then God is...

No, you must show where the Bible calls obeidence to God's will a work of merit else you are in error on the subject.

Where does the BIble define water baptism as 'a religious ceremony is an outward sign/demonstration/witness of an inward reality'? The Bible does not say water baptism is an outward reality that one is already saved.

You are making a change to scripture. Again, do you not understand that obedience to God's will and works of merit are NOT the same things?

Yet the BIble does not define water baptism as you do here.

God has commanded men to be water baptized, yet you are trying to take this Divine command and change it to a device (work) of man done to merit salvation. Do you not understand that obedience to God's will and works of merit are NOT the same things?

Heb 9:15-17 easily exposes 'thief argument' as false.

No, one is either serving sin unto death therefore lost or serving obedience unto righteousness. God commanded water baptism, (nowhere was any 'spirit baptism' ever commanded), therefore obedience to God's command to be water baptized is obedience unto righteousness. Furthermore, there is...

Not one of the verses you cite say man is born a sinner. Jeremiah does state man is deveitful and wicked but he does NOT state HOW man got that way, He dos NOT say man is innately, unconditionally born wicked and sinful. You read your ideas into the verses. No verse states infants are born...