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I’ve seen you make this claim several times and I don’t think it’s accurate. Matthew 22:32 I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? God is not the God of the dead, but of the living (zao). Jesus is quoting Exodus 3:6 which means this verse is referring to the...

Revelation 21:23 also has New Jerusalem not needing the sun or moon, but my point is that a time will come when the Jeremiah 31:36 promise gets fulfilled. This means there can be no unconditional eternal promises made to the nation of Israel, right? Verses such as Ezekiel 37:25-26 can’t be...

What about Isaiah 60:20 where the sun and moon are not obeying their ordinances which were given back in Genesis 1:14? Doesn’t this qualify as meeting the Jeremiah 31:36 conditions? Genesis 1:14 And God said, Let there be lights in the firmament of the heaven to divide the day from the night...

Ok, I disagree with you on this, even with looking at the interlinear. Verse 35 ends in a colon which means verse 36 is referring back to the ordinances of the sun, moon, and stars in verse 35, not the new covenant in verse 31.

Irregardless of the time period Isaiah 60:20 is pointing to, at some point the sun and moon do not obey the ordinances. You are adding in the stipulation of “if God's ordinance has departed from Israel before the GWTR judgement”. That is not in Jeremiah 31:36. Jeremiah 31:31 is referring to...

Here are some facts to consider … Fact: the ordinances of the sun, moon, and stars is given in Genesis 1:14. Genesis 1:14 And God said, Let there be lights in the firmament of the heaven to divide the day from the night; and let them be for signs, and for seasons, and for days, and years...

I don’t know the actual length of time. I know it’s a little season, just like everyone else, because that’s what Revelation 6:11 says. We can’t be certain of the actual date the question was asked but we know it had to be prior to the book of Revelation being written, or published. So the...

I don’t want to debate free will vs elect because that type of argument never ends, but I’m curious, do you believe in free will? Can someone “born of God” use their free will to sin or does someone “born of God” not have the free will to sin?

I agree with you on this. There certainly were some people during the first century that were attempting to persuade new covenant believers to follow to old covenant requirements. Perhaps those that “went out from us” were people who initially accepted Jesus as the Messiah but later decided to...

Well from 1 John 5:18 people who are born of God sinneth not. If the falling away is the saints sining then the saints aren’t born of God, right? I’m not sure I understand your position, are there two different classes of believers, saints and those born of God?

What about the Lord’s Prayer? In Luke 11:4 it says forgive us our sins, is this prayer not meant for people who are born of God?

That’s not hard to understand, Gentiles were excluded when they didn’t participate with the old covenant requirements, and included when they did participate. You are arguing against yourself, that was not your position on May 31, 2024 when you said “You need to read the New Testament. It...

In the thread “Why are some interpreters not being honest with the text involving Daniel 9:27?” Post #568 you said “You need to read the New Testament. It repeatedly shows how Gentile believers were included in the covenants that God made with Israel.” Here is the quote below … Now it...

I completely agree, but just as Paul went to the Gentiles, Peter went to the Jews. That absolutely is something he would say to Jews but wouldn’t say to Gentiles. In 1 Peter 1:1 he wrote to the diaspora which is always referring to Jews elsewhere in the Bible. Even though many Jews remained...

There are no other instances where diaspora is used in a spiritual sense and the diaspora wasn’t referring to Gentiles unless you call Peter’s usage the only exception. Galatians 2:9 tells us Peter went to the circumcision. I have come across others on this forum that claim there are instances...

The one flock is made up of scattered Jews and Gentiles. The Gentiles are the nations of the world, they aren’t scattered to even more nations somewhere beyond that. I’m not arguing against Jew and Gentiles alike being part of the Royal Priesthood.

Ok, well that agrees with my view of Peter referring to the Jews as the diaspora.

It didn’t impede but it shows that there was a distinction being made between Jew and Gentile that the Holy Spirit recognized.

Would 1 Peter 1:1 be the only place they are called the diaspora?

So why was a different burden put on the Gentiles than the Jews in Acts 15:28-29? This different burden seemed good to the Holy Spirit.