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Then why, might I ask, do you continually take verses out of context, and then tell me my logic is flawed when all I do is read a few verses down! The Bible is what is contradicting you, not me! And to top it all off you'll say things like the above quote, and then when I use Scripture to show...

So, Jesus died for every and all sin of every and all men?

How about, like, a shred of Biblical evidence to back up you claims. Again, don't care about feelings theology. I want to know what the Bible says.

But if it needs Strong's interpretation, it can't really stand alone.

But not other Scriptures. Why does Strong's have the right to interpret God's word but other Scripture can't? [because if Scripture can't stand alone, your theology won't work]

.... When you use Strong's to interpret rather than other Scripture.

How so? Every verse you quoted, I showed you that [many times within the same chapter] You contradicted yourself. And it was Scripture saying that you contradicted yourself.

So.... Strong's can interpret Scripture, but other Scripture can't?

Prophecy is an aspect of Scripture, but not all Scripture is prophecy. Sorry, nope.

You said that verses can stand alone. Here I proved they cannot stand alone as you have them do to support your feelings theology.

But it says hate him. Not hate "in comparison to ect." It simply says hate them. Hate them all. Nowhere does it add the "in comparison" thing you did. That's what YOU said, not Scripture.

Keep reading. Down in 6:60 he begins explaining that this is not of the flesh but of God. And before that He says the same thing, that the Father must draw them to Himself. Guess what? CONTEXT! He is talking about prophecy! He specifically says that! And while your at it, read about making...

No, the word hate means hate. Here you need the context of Scripture, otherwise you will get a twisted and warped theology based on a misinterpretation. This is why Scripture must be taken as a whole. Nowhere in the passage does it infer what you just did. However, elsewhere it does, which is...

Verses. Not Feelings please. Ok, then. Luke 14:26. By itself.

And just to make sure you know my theology regarding this is not based on just 1 verse: Ezekiel 37:14 "I will put My Spirit within you and you will come to life, and I will place you on your own land. Then you will know that I, the LORD, have spoken and done it," declares the LORD.'" Ok...

Titus 3:5-6 He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit, whom He poured out upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior, Yep. It is.

Again, the Scripture you are trying to pull all of this from isn't even speaking about what you claim it is! So all the rest of this "Free will" and "Gentleman" stuff is nothing more than fluffy feelings. Neither one of those terms appear in Scripture; they are merely feeling-driven theology.

Yep. And this means that salvation comes from God's grace in giving man faith to believe; by changing man's sinful will to one that wants to love and obey Him. Only if the Holy Spirit operates can man come to faith, because as you said man himself cannot will this

Exactly! Which means man's will is not free. It cannot will itself saved. See, we are learning! Again, look up a few verses and you will see he is talking to a church that is going astray, saying either accept Christ into the churches doors, or don't call yourselves a church. Has nothing to do...

Examples? 1.) I already told you; I address the Scriptures, not your feelings. I really don't care about what you feel, so I elected to not respond. 2.) The verses, however, I merely showed you where the rest of Scripture contradicted what you said. So what you are saying is that the...