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Jesus is the incarnation, the enfleshment, of God’s self expression. God’s self-expression,”it”, becomes “he“ when the self-expression of God, davar / logos, became flesh. This happened at the supernatural conception / birth of Jesus. This harmonizes John with the birth narratives contained in...

Thanks. John is a Jewish monotheist. The translators recognized that he was drawing on his Hebraic background. In the Old Testament, Hebrew davar = Greek logos. Davar is a person’s self-expression, never another person.

“This is true religion, to approve what God approves, to hate what He hates, and to delight in what delights Him.” - Charles Hodge

I haven’t read anything like that about any of the translators of those versions but maybe someone else has and will share it with us. It was suggested that the translators of those Bibles may have ignored the verses which follow the prologue. I don’t think translators of their quality would...

From my X / Twitter “For you” feed today; a fascinating cautionary tale. “Alright Bible and theology students, let this be a lesson: …” (David M. Shaw) https://x.com/shaw_davidm/status/1910592435182305528?s=61 Caught out, the program apologized to Dr. Shaw (Dean of Studies, and Senior...

The God of Jewish monotheism / Jewish monotheists isn’t plural.

From today’s reading in the reading plan which I’m using this year: 31 examples emphasizing the grammatical point. First, the setup. ”Now these are the kings of the land whom Joshua and the sons of Israel defeated beyond the Jordan toward the west, from Baal-gad in the valley of Lebanon even...

I’m a Jewish monotheist who believes that Jesus of Nazareth is the Messiah, Son of the living God. The creed asserts (as does the Nicene creed) that no one can remain a Jewish monotheist and be saved. Those who affirm the creed(s) aren’t shy - and shouldn’t be - about telling me that I‘m not...

I directed your attention to the Geneva Bible, and provided a link for your convenience. No matter the translation, John and Jesus are both Jewish monotheists.

John isn’t just a monotheist. John is a Jewish monotheist, just like the Messiah himself is. For the prologue of John’s Gospel, see the Geneva Bible (and others which translate it in the same manner.) http://www.genevabible.org/geneva.html

If this is true? Why would anyone doubt that an apostle is born again? He isn’t a trinitarian. He’s a 1st century Jewish monotheist. Your post #188 began with the first verse of the prologue. Why didn’t you read the prologue? That’s the only frame of reference for a 1st century Jewish...

I‘m sorry I wasn’t clear in my post about the translations I was asking about. Post #197 quoted the prologue of John’s Gospel from the Tyndale, Cranmer, Bishops and Geneva translations. The translators of all four of those translations were trinitarians. I was asking for your thoughts on why...

“There is all the difference in the world between praising the Sermon on the Mount and practicing it. There is all the difference in the world between applauding it and applying it.” - Martyn Lloyd-Jones

* No, none for me. Thanks. *