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.................................. The nominative case theos is used for subjects and predicate nouns. The accusative case theon is used for objects. This includes direct objects and objects of certain prepositions. For the most part it has the definite article when as a direct object it...

Whether anyone believes Jesus is God is not the point of this discussion. Trinity "proofs" have nothing to do with it. I'm only asking for folks to read my study excerpts posted here and point out any provable errors. I tried to find what John truly intended at John 1:1c. Is there another...

Excerpt from End Note #5 from the DEF study: But most important to a study of John's use of the article with theos to indicate God, here are all his uses of the nominative theos: There are 51 such uses of theos by John (18 in the Gospel of John, 13 in First John, 20 in Revelation). Here is...

As I feared, there are no students here who are able to point out any errors I may have made in the above excerpts from my studies of the grammar and usage found in the writings of John concerning John 1:1c.

...................................................... is “saviour” (yasha in Hebrew [Strong‘s # 3467], soter in NT Greek [Strong‘s # 4990]) really an exclusive title for Jehovah, or can it properly be applied to other individuals? If Jehovah is insisting that no one but himself is ever to be...

........................................... I believe it could. After all, we know a person was called a rock. And we believe Jesus was called Wisdom.

We also find in very early Coptic language translations of John 1:1c that it is rendered “and the Word was a god.” - http://nwtandcoptic.blogspot.com/ In fact, even certain trinitarian scholars have correctly admitted that those very first readers for whom John wrote his Gospel were already...

In the following list if the predicate noun (p.n.) has no article, it has “an.” (anarthrous) written before it. “Art.” (articular) means the article (“the”) is with it (making it an improper example for a John 1:1c - type rule, of course). Other improper examples have “prep.,” “abstract,”...

Proper examples and exceptions Personal names such as “Jesus,” “Abraham,” “Mary,” etc. should not be included as proper examples of predicate nouns in this case because they take the article erratically in the Greek text. They may take a definite article in NT Greek or not according to...

But even if you haven’t even begun studying NT Greek, you can prove the trinitarian misinterpretation of Colwell’s Rule to be completely false simply by actually going through the Gospel of John in a Greek-English Interlinear New Testament and finding all the places where a predicate noun...

"The English translation must be determined by observing the [Greek word] endings, not by observing the [word] order." - p. 27, New Testament Greek For Beginners, Machen, The Macmillan Co. (Cf., pp. 7, 22, New Testament Greek Primer, Marshall, Zondervan) And in an example illustrating predicate...

Grammatical “Rules” for a Definite John 1:1c Many trinitarian defenses (or offenses) for their favored translation of John 1:1c pretend to refer to rules of Greek grammar. Many people, trinitarian and non-trinitarian alike, are afraid to begin a study of anything that sounds so...

John 1:1 and the Use of the Article With Theos The importance of the definite article (the word “the” in English; ho in NT Greek) when it is used with the Greek word for “God”/“god” (theos in Greek) is a major point of disagreement between non-trinitarians and some trinitarians when they...

"Justin and the other Apologists [including, of course, the writer of the Epistle to Diognetus] therefore taught that the Son is a creature. He is a high creature, a creature powerful enough to create the world, but nevertheless, a creature. In theology this relationship of the Son to the...

New Testament Greek expert Joseph H. Thayer also defined theos: “θεὸς [theos] is used of whatever can in any respect be likened to God or resembles him in any way: Hebraistically, i.q. God’s representative or vicegerent, of magistrates and judges.” - p. 288, Thayer’s Greek-English Lexicon of...

Literal Translation of John 1:1c Even the trinitarian Greek expert, W. E. Vine, (although, for obvious reasons, he chooses not to accept it as the proper interpretation) admits that the literal translation of John 1:1c is: “a god was the Word”. - p. 490, An Expository Dictionary of New...

John 1:1c and John’s use of grammar Let’s look at some Bible translations that differ from the majority of trinitarian translations. Some use the term “divine.” (1) Trinitarian Moffatt’s popular New Translation of the Bible and (2) trinitarian Smith-Goodspeed’s An American Translation...

................................... And was totally debunked in post 245 for those with enough integrity to research it.

........................................ Immanuel Should Jesus really be considered to be God because he was symbolically “named” Immanuel (Is. 7:14; Mt. 1:23) which means “God is with us”? No more so than Gabriel was calling himself God when he visited Mary and declared: “The Lord is...

...................................... Just as I thought Mr. true student.