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    To what does the APOSTASIA refer

    So you're the only one possessing the truth of God. Where can we come to worship you? :laughing:
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    To what does the APOSTASIA refer

    According to Strong et al it means "defection, revolt, apostasy...from the true religion".
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    To what does the APOSTASIA refer

    Apostasy as rapture in 2 Thessalonians 2:3 was unseen, unsaid, and unknown in true Christian orthodoxy prior to the 19th century. The Bible translations which it is claimed contain the dogma were all written by Reformers from the 14th to 17th centuries. No Reformer ever heard of a pretrib...
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    The word Rapture DOES APPEAR in the Bible

    There seems to be some contradiction there. :laughing:
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    When was the A.O.D fulfilled?

    You are correct that God sent the armies. Sending them was not an abomination. Rather, they were His abominable pagan servants and agents chosen and sent to accomplish His purposes of judgment and destruction upon apostate Israel.
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    When was the A.O.D fulfilled?

    But Matthew and Luke combine to identify the armies as standing in the holy place.
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    When was the A.O.D fulfilled?

    Isaiah 34 5 For my sword shall be bathed in heaven: behold, it shall come down upon Idumea, and upon the people of my curse, to judgment. Idumea, home of the Edomites who were implacable enemies of Israel, was destroyed in the 6th century BCE. Nothing to do with the abomination of desolation...
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    When was the A.O.D fulfilled?

    There's not even a little.
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    When was the A.O.D fulfilled?

    Neither of the words "abomination" or any of its derivatives, or "desolation" or any of its derivatives, appears in those verses. Nor do any of those verses reference Matthew 24:15 or Luke 21:20. Nor do Matthew 24:15 or Luke 21:20 reference any of the Isaiah verses.
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    When was the A.O.D fulfilled?

    Yes, Matthew 24:15 and Luke 21:20 together identify the abomination of desolation, which was the armies surrounding Jerusalem. What Scripture verses support your interpretation?
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    When was the A.O.D fulfilled?

    But according to Matthew 24:15 and Luke 21:20 and the affirmations of the historic commentators, the abomination of desolation was the armies. How do you reconcile those with your interpretation?
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    When was the A.O.D fulfilled?

    The Roman armies were an abomination to the monotheistic Jews because of the idolatrous ensigns which they worshiped and carried in battle. The Roman armies brought desolation upon Jerusalem in 70 AD. Adam Clarke: The abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel - This abomination of...
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    When was the A.O.D fulfilled?

    Matthew 24:15 is interpreted by its parallel synoptic verse in Luke 21:20. The AOD was the armies surrounding Jerusalem.
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    Daniel's Final "one week" of Daniel 9:27 Made Simple

    No, they aren't. They go by what is in the Babylonian talmud, which to them supersedes the Pentateuch in its entirety. Jesus denounced it and them. Mark 7 13 Making the word of God of none effect through your tradition, which ye have delivered: and many such like things do ye.
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    There are 2 tribulation periods, the “first” is to the Jews

    All of us know with complete certainty that none of us believes in dispensationalism's decapitated 70th week. I don't think that anything further needs to be said beyond that.
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    Romans 11:25 - Partially blinded

    I concur; I should have checked previous posts to ascertain the context. However, note that those blinded would also include proselyte Gentiles, who were part of Israel from its beginning and throughout its history.
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    Romans 11:25 - Partially blinded

    I'd say #5, because faithfulness and obedience are God's sole and exclusive criteria for identifying who are "special", i.e. elect, to Him.