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You lost me. I don't know what you are meaning here?

Come on now, you can't be serious, no one is being deceptive about anything here, the point I am making is that A) proves that just because something doesn't happen until something previous is finished first, this doesn't have to mean once the previous event finishes, the next event immediately...

Awhile back I came across the following article and bookmarked it at the time. Wasn't for certain if could find it in my bookmarks after all this time, but after searching them I sure enough found it. The article isn't that lengthy and there could be some logic to what the author is proposing...

Actually, you are the one being absurd here. As if, after the millennium, the ones that are devoured by fire, these are meaning the saved rather than the unsaved. These people just don't come out of nowhere all of a sudden. If they are present after the millennium they are obviously also present...

That would mean the 7 years burning the weapons, the 7 months burying the dead, is meaning during the beginning of the millennium, right? If yes, that makes sense to me since there is this to consider---nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more(Isaiah...

A) But Trump served as President not again until his first term as President was finished. B) But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. Show us the difference between A) and B). Keeping in mind that per A) there is a 4 year gap between when his first...

Why can't any of that describe the past 2000 years beginning with what happened in 70 AD? Then close to the mid 20th century they have been brought out of the nations where they were dwelling, to then return to their homeland? What you probably take issue with, would be my guess, might be...

At that point He no longer would be hiding His face. Therefore, Ezekiel 37 must be meaning after God executes His judgment on Gog and his multitude, not before he does. If everything pertaining to Ezekiel 37 is already true before God executes His judgment on Gog and his multitude, it tends to...

Let's see if you might be correct. But it will be involving details that have to be taken into account first. Details are something that Amils like to tend to ignore a lot of the time. And don't try and deny it either. You know you and other Amils ignore details a lot of the time otherwise you...

If anything, everyone should already know that what is recorded in verse 24 can not occur until Revelation 20:11-15 has been fulfilled first. And everyone should already know that Revelation 20:11-15 can't be fulfilled in a single 24 hour day or less. Obviously then, verses 23-24 are compressed...

Let's look at some of the text again. Ezekiel 39:23 And the heathen shall know that the house of Israel went into captivity for their iniquity: because they trespassed against me, therefore hid I my face from them, and gave them into the hand of their enemies: so fell they all by the sword...

Is that even a reasonable option, though? I wouldn't think so. Therefore, what you proposed per the 2nd option appears to be the more reasonable option.

Daniel 11:41 He shall enter also into the glorious land, and many countries shall be overthrown: but these shall escape out of his hand, even Edom, and Moab, and the chief of the children of Ammon. Some of us, probably not including you though, take this verse to be involving the final days...

IMO, it's equally irrational to conclude that anything pertaining to Ezekiel 38-39 is involving the same time period Revelation 20:7-9 is involving. The former is involving those that God is still hiding His face from until He executes His judgment on Gog and his multitude first. The latter is...

The Moabs could be on his chart except maybe they are no longer known as the Moabs in our day and time. That being one possible solution.

Why don't you already know that can't be true? You are obviously intelligent, therefore, you are without excuse. Just use your brain here for a moment. After all, these events are involving the last days. If the last days didn't even begin until Christ came first 2000 years ago, how then is it...

Point out some things that Esther records that agrees with things Ezekiel 38-39 records. A good place to start would be to show us in Esther what matches, thus agrees with what Ezekiel 38:16-23 records.

IOW, you can't refute what I submitted, so just blame it on my carnal mind then. That way you don't have to deal with any of my arguments. What a cop out on your part.

This would be a valid argument, only if God already executed His judgment on Gog and his multitude before the time involving Acts 2 occurred. Clearly, Ezekiel 39:29 is meaning after He executes that judgment, not prior to it instead.

I don't agree they are and here are a few reasons why. Revelation 20:7-9 involve people God is not hiding His face from. Ezekiel 38-39 involve people God is hiding His face from until He executes His judgment on Gog and his multitude. Ezekiel 39:21 And I will set my glory among the heathen...