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That might be how you see it but that is not the meaning of anathema according to the Oxford dictionaries (2016. s v anathema): 'A formal curse by a pope or a council of the Church, excommunicating a person or denouncing a doctrine'. It is a formal curse that includes excommunication. Oz

Josho, How am I going? It's tough being an evangelical Christian in such a hostile environment. The gay rights movement has grabbed the media's attention and most of the newspapers I read are supporting the gay agenda. Other media are similar in their support. That Safe Schools' Program in...

The NLT claims to be literal but they failed to translate it into the literal equivalent which is either soulish or soulical. Soulish is in Merriam-Webster online and might work best because of that availability. kerwin, Your are understanding of the translation philosophy of the New Living...

kerwin, You miss a fundamental with translation. The ISV is a dynamic equivalent translation that gives meaning-for-meaning translation in contrast with a formal equivalent translation like the ESV, KJV, NASB which tries to give a literal translation. Anyone who knows Greek (as I do) knows that...

junobet, Your theology on 'destroy' is not consistent with the rest of biblical revelation. Revelation 14:10-11 (ESV) tells us what that eternal destruction is about - torment forever and ever (for aeons of aeons) 'with no rest, day or night'. God's standard of consequences is sure different...

What is THAT? Do you mean what is in red here? Here it is: Oz: Scripture does not need to give a list. You are placing a demand on Scripture that Scripture does not require. You are arguing about something that is not in Scripture. You want it to be in Scripture - a list of books from OT and...

junobet, Do you think that God will succeed in his wanting all people to be saved? Will all people who have ever lived, now live, and will ever live receive eternal salvation? If God wants to save all, does that mean he will save all? What do you say to those who maintain that God will not...

Tom, Even though the NT writers seem to have used the LXX (Septuagint), that does not mean that the OT Jewish canon included the deuterocanonical/Apocrypha books. Let's do some investigation: There was not a period of 1500 years prior to the Reformation when the canon of Scripture was settled...

Tom, Even though I only chose portion of kepha's quote in #235, surely you should have noted that I addressed the person of kepha for making that statement. I wouldn't start the post, 'kepha', if the quote wasn't from kepha. That should be self-evident. You say, 'It appears you wrote it'. Come...

kepha, There is not a word in Scripture that confirms what you have stated here. Therefore, yours is an argument from silence logical fallacy. You are not providing evidence to support your claim. We can't have a rational discussion when you raise issues about silence and provide zero...

juno, Jesus disagreed with your interpretation: God's compassion and love demand His discipline for the disobedient. Also, John 3:36 (ESV) agrees with Matt 7:13-14 (ESV) and not your universalism of 1 Tim 4:10. Universalism is regarded as a heresy. See 'How serious a heresy is universalism?'...

The words speak for themselves. They were inflammatory and goading me.

You provide ZERO biblical evidence. Therefore, this statement is nothing more than your personal assertion.

Sorry Tom, that was my error. The post to which I referred was #232. Please demonstrate to me that there was NO discussion about the content of the OT canon until the 1500s. You have provided no evidence that it was those pesky Protestants who caused the kerfuffle. Oz

Tom, Please go back to #234 and you'll find it was kepha who wrote that. Don't you know how to use the Search facility on each page of CyB to discover who made that statement? Oz

Tom, Argument from silence is fallacious/erroneous reasoning because you can't argue about what Scripture doesn't say. Let's deal with what it does say. I referred you to Acts 17:11 (ESV) to demonstrate that the Berean Jewish Christians in the first century KNEW what was in Scripture as Paul...

juno, You find my answers in my posts to you to be 'increasingly erratic'. You are flaming me and I object strongly that you, a moderator, should be doing that to me. Let's deal with the issues and not have you use an ad hominem fallacy against me. Don't you understand the seriousness of what...

I raised none of those matters. Never mentioned Jamnia or a Jewish council that rejected Christ and the Revelation (is that the Book of Revelation?) You invent stuff that I did not write. This is your misrepresentation again with a straw man.

Please document what you are talking about, instead of this generic piece of nothingness. You did not deal with the issues I raised in #292.

kepha, In asking that question, you have committed a genetic logical fallacy. When you engage in such fallacious reasoning, we cannot have a logical conversation. Among the main reasons for rejection of these books of the Apocrypha are the demonstrated errors and contradictions in them. Oz