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Not necessarily, “are” could mean “are cast in” and “were” could mean “were cast in”

It does matter, if the beast and false prophet were in the LOF, as in past tense, then it is possible to exit the LOF. In Revelation 13:2 the dragon gives the beast his power, seat, and authority. The next time we see the dragon is in Revelation 16:13 where the spirits of all three, dragon...

Smith’s Literal And the devil deceiving them was cast into the lake of fire and sulphur, where are the wild beast and false prophet, and they shall be tortured day and night for ever and ever. ESV and the devil who had deceived them was thrown into the lake of fire and sulfur where the beast...

If that’s the case then they aren’t experiencing the last plagues. The last plagues are the plagues written in the book and it’s those plagues that have to be experienced. What is your explanation for why the rich man wanted a drop of water? If he had no physical body then physical water...

Well, Revelation 22:18 says specifically that it’s the plagues written in this book. In Revelation 15:1 the angels have the seven last plagues, then in Revelation 16:1 they are poured out upon the earth. A dead person would have to be upon the earth during that time to experience the last...

Here are some things to consider which you might find useful, or not. In Revelation 20:5 the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished. It doesn’t say they lived again after Satan’s little season, it’s after the thousand years. So the rest of the dead lived again...

If we look at it that way, meaning only those who have a correct view of Revelation have the ability to add or take away, then how can anyone else determine whether the book has already been altered or not? As you say there are a lot of people who claim they have the true correct understanding...

Whether the last plagues are literal or not is relevant to Premil because Revelation 22:18 says if any man add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book. How can a person who added to the book, such as Joseph Smiths Book of Mormon, experience the...

I agree Hosea was written after the Exodus but the commentaries I’ve looked at say Hosea 11:1-7 is a direct reference to the Exodus. Do you know of any commentaries that don’t see it this way? It’s been brought up that when reading Hosea 11:1, it doesn’t come across as a still future event but...

Ok, great, I also think it was fulfilled in the Exodus. There are a few people who reject the exodus from Egypt (see Wikipedia). I wasn’t sure where you stand because you seem to be questioning some verses. Since we both agree Hosea 11:1 was fulfilled once and Matthew 2:15 states another...

I think QT is ultimately asking about your Premil view. He’s asking about the conflict of the gospel and the ideology of Satan. The ideology of Satan has to do with the binding of Satan and when that occurs.

Not all translations use the word “flood”. The Old Greek, which I believe is the oldest known version of Daniel reads much different. Daniel 9:26(OG) And after seven and seventy and sixty-two weeks, an anointing will be removed and will not be. And a king of nations will demolish the city and...

Yea, a case by case examination is the best. If Jesus didn’t fulfill Hosea 11:1 then when did or will it be fulfilled? Do you see it as still being unfulfilled?

Let’s start with literal fulfillment, maybe something that some people think was fulfilled in 70AD but perhaps you don’t.

What do you suppose the OT quotes were referring to if not Jesus?

I agree, I find the study of eschatology eliminating or disallowing certain interpretations of verses found in the OT. Do you have any verses that are in question that are about events after the cross?

A decision has to be made as to which way of interpreting is correct, I personally see the NT revealing what is hidden in the OT.

Sure, if you think the clarity is found in the OT and ambiguity in the NT then we are going to be on totally different planes. Numbers 12:6 And he said, Hear now my words: If there be a prophet among you, I the LORD will make myself known unto him in a vision, and will speak unto him in a dream.

Well if we view Jesus as the Word of God then I would say whether or not Zechariah foresaw, Jesus’s view clarifies the intent of the verse.

I’m not sure what the real issue is here. Jesus spoke the words in Mark 14:27, we either have faith that He spoke the truth or we don’t. If the issue you’re looking at is why the OT reads different in some cases than where it is quoted in the NT, the folks at 2001translation.org have done quite...