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So your claim is that because He didn't specify any particular war, nation, famine, pestilence or earthquake, therefore His predictions were useless. If His predictions about the period leading up to 70AD were useless, then there is no reason to believe that those predictions will be less...

More evidence. PERSECUTION AGAINST THE DISCIPLES Matthew: "Then shall they deliver you up to be afflicted, and shall kill you: and ye shall be hated of all nations for my name's sake. And then shall many be offended, and shall betray one another, and shall hate one another.., And because...

If the events and phenomena that Jesus predicted occurred exactly at the time and in the manner that He predicted, there is nothing that disqualifies them as evidence, irrespective of where they occurred. Note also that Jesus' predictions of deceivers, and of the persecution of His disciples...

Yes, the chosen, who were those faithful and obedient to Christ within Israel, were saved.

True. The last at least 15 verses in the chapter are devoted to Jesus answering the question about the "sunteleia". That's not "ignoring the climactic references to His return." True. But the challenge does not begin until verse 29. Everything prior to that is confirmable by Scripture...

Did Jesus prophesying of 70AD and associated phenomena make Him a full preterist? (Re)read post 115. Jesus does not agree with your "compelling Scripture".

The end of the age is "sunteleia", not "telos", in Matthew 24. That is patently obvious. There are no such things as "system" or "sham". Those are not Biblical words. "The burden of proof is with you to show that, but you cannot. It is simply not there." Jerusalem today is not Jerusalem...

God spiritually destroyed OT Israel at Calvary. God physically destroyed OT Israel at the destruction of Jerusalem. What's so hard to understand?

You wouldn't be mystified if you'd stop wallowing in unrighteousness, and accept the Everlasting Righteousness of Calvary. Daniel 9:24 But you won't, so you are.

Thanks for confirming your spiritual undiscernment.

I completely agree.

The only relationship that God has, and has ever had, inside or outside of Israel; is with those who are faithful and obedient to Him. He has never put that relationship on hold, and never will. It has always been front and center, and will always be. Except to the spiritually undiscerning to...

Jerusalem was not physically dead after the cross. The temple was not physically dead after the cross. The OT Jewish economy was not physically dead after the cross. But God would not permit their physical continuation. He brought all to a divinely ordained "telos" physical end in 70AD.

There are four instances where Jesus uses the word "sunteleia" and it is translated "end of the age". (Matthew 13:39,40,49; Matthew 28:20) There is not one instance where Jesus uses the word "telos" and it is translated "end of the age". Thus in Matthew 24, Jesus' use of the word "telos" does...

Agreed. Interesting Scriptural observation, rwb. Forty years of God's patience and mercy completely squandered.

Continue wallowing in unrighteousness, and leave the righteousness of Calvary for those of us who experience it. Whom to believe about Daniel 9:24? 1. You 2. Every pre-19th century recognized Bible expositor Do you need a hint?

Completed at Calvary for me. Too bad about you.

It was that and more. It was God's determination to irrefutably demonstrate the death of the old covenant by utterly destroying, i.e. bringing to a "telos" end, every temporal evidence and vestige of that covenant. This He did, via the armies under the direction of His Son, in 70AD.

We would expect Him to use the appropriate word. He did.

Never said such. But in a chapter where both "sunteleia" and "telos" appear, then the distinction between the two is significant. If Jesus had been referring to His return, then "sunteleia" would have been the obvious word to use. But He used "telos" instead. To signify a different "end".