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Yes, and it is a separate word which follows every instance of the word "sunteleia" when "sunteleia" is used by Jesus. There is not one instance where Jesus uses the word "telos" and it is followed by the word "aion". If we're interpreting Scripture with Scripture, then the undisputed best...

I believe that 70AD and the destruction of Jerusalem and Israel were of both local and global significance. If not the latter, we wouldn't be discussing them today.

The rebuttal stands unassailed. There is not one instance where Jesus uses the word "telos" and it is translated "end of the age".

So did the NASB misquote you? Yes, and it is a separate word which follows every instance of the word "sunteleia". Where did Jesus use them as synonyms?

The truth stands unassailed. There is not one instance where Jesus uses the word "telos" and it is translated "end of the age".

I certainly do have a choice. I'm undecided, as those verses could apply to either the 70AD era event, or to the Second Coming. If you accept verse 34 as written, they apply to 70AD. However, I haven't cast my lot with that interpretation. How do you interpret them?

That's the kind of evidence I was expecting, and you didn't disappoint. Thanks.

I'm talking to a fantasy futurist. Not much difference. I'll take 2 or 3 line replies over a bloated surfeit of private interpretation, every time. But keep that Scripture coming. Every quote of yours re-confirms the reality: There is not one instance where Jesus uses the word "telos" and...

When do you plan to start? :laughing:

You are espousing classic modernist Darby/Scofield futurist fallacy in your malinterpretation of Jesus use of "telos" in Matthew 24. I would also challenge you to provide any evidence of any recognized orthodox Christian expositor prior to the 19th century who espoused the same futurist fallacy...

The "thing" in Matthew 24 was Jerusalem and the nation of Israel.

Confirming what I've said. There is not one instance where Jesus uses the word "telos" and it is translated "end of the age".

When did you decide to sell out to Darby/Scofield dispensational futurism?

Thanks for the guffaws. The "telos" end occurred over four years beginning with Cestius Gallus' advance on Jerusalem, in 66AD, followed by a brief withdrawal during which the Christians escaped. Your ignorance of history is risible.

Awaiting a disproof of post 115.

Awaiting a disproof of post 115. The definition of "telos" does not include "age". The only imagination is yours.

You'll have to argue with the Apostle Paul, Bro. Woodrow, et al. Colossians 1:23, "every creature", is a particularly pointed rebuttal of your denial. GOSPEL TO BE PREACHED TO THE NATIONS "And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and...

There is no intermingling in verses 1-28. Great confusion results from thinking that there is. No. He addresses the events in the order of the questions posed about them. The first event is the physical destruction of the temple, which Jesus addresses in His descriptions of the events and...

Here's how "sunteleias" is translated in the NASB: Matthew 24:3 And as He was sitting on the Mount of Olives, the disciples came to Him privately, saying, “Tell us, when will these things happen, and what will be the sign of Your coming, and of the end of the age?” You need to correct your...

They are not synonymous as Jesus used them. You'll have to disprove post 115 first.