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Until 1859, did mean: Apostasy. Falling away. Not flying away.

They do if they've been following this thread. I've no doubt that he does; and that those who disagree with him re. "falling away", which includes virtually the entire historic true Christian Church, do also.

For shame, you're offending "Ice T.".

Isaiah 13 6 Howl ye; for the day of the Lord is at hand; it shall come as a destruction from the Almighty. 9 Behold, the day of the Lord cometh, cruel both with wrath and fierce anger, to lay the land desolate: and he shall destroy the sinners thereof out of it. 10 For the stars of heaven and...

There is only one definition which Strong applies to Matthew 24:34: "the whole multitude of men living at the same time"

Define "Mosaic Age".

Yes, and well beyond the disciples. From the early church fathers, to the Reformation historicists, of those who exegeted Matthew 24, there is a clear majority who recognized the "end" to be referring to the destruction of Jerusalem.

I don't know what you mean by "Mosaic Age". Here's what I said in post 124: God spiritually destroyed OT Israel at Calvary. God physically destroyed OT Israel at the destruction of Jerusalem. Here's what you said in post 129: I am not disputing that.

Since no pre-19th century recognized orthodox Christian expositors futurized the "end" in Matthew 24, do you think that they didn't let the Bible speak for itself?

Did God ordain the destruction of Jerusalem, and if so, what did He accomplish by it?

That today encompasses the entire human race, as Abraham's genome is ubiquitous after more than three millennia of natural genetic dispersion and diffusion. Obviously God failed to destroy Israel as you define it.

Certainly. The given definition is the definition applicable to Matthew 24:34.

Jesus must have been adding unto Scripture when He added "aion" to His every use of "sunteleia".

You don't believe that Jesus is the best interpreter of Jesus? I'm confused because I'm still human. What about you?

Define "physical Israel".

It is proof, based on Scripture and Scripture alone. And on the reasonable and logical expectation that Christ would seek to eliminate confusion.

How could it have been mostly local if the entire Christian Church and much of the rest of the world up until today is aware of it?

Futurists also think it has only one definition. Here's what Strong thinks: "the whole multitude of men living at the same time: Matthew 24:34"

Because He was seeking to ensure that the end of Israel in 70AD, would not be confused with the end of the age at His Second Coming. Wasn't that logical and reasonable?

Were 70AD and the destruction of Jerusalem and Israel of both local and global significance?