Search results

You really do not understand imputation, nor did I infer that our sin is somehow imputed or injected inside Christ. I'm not sure what that even means... And it's painfully obvious you do not understand justification either. Justification (that is: to declare righteous) is always objective...

It's obvious you don't understand the biblical concept of imputation or how God was in Christ justifying and reconciling us to Himself. When Jesus hung on the cross, our sins were imputed to Him. And His death thereby acquitted us of quilt and condemnation and justified us (the soul)...

Sin isn't really "transferred over", but rather reckoned, accounted and charged as such against the soul. Your understanding of what imputation means is really not how scripture uses the term. For lack of a better way to explain it: Think of the soul as a compound consisting of two elements...

The sins of the flesh are imputed (counted as such) against the soul and consequently the soul proper is reckoned as being "ungodly", stained and spotted as such. For a little leaven leavens the whole lump (Gal 5:9). However, Christ died to justify and save the soul according to the spirit...

An exegesis that conflates flesh and spirit. An exegesis that believes it's referent is the soul without division from the spirit (Heb 4:12). It's not. It's referent is the soul according to the flesh, sans spirit. When scripture speaks of Christ dying for the ungodly (Rom 5:6), in-order to...

The scriptures you've shown are fine. It's your exegesis that is wrong.

I've referenced (using scripture) who He is that justifies the ungodly in post #116, and why He was able to justify the ungodly in post #126. There is really not much else I can say regarding this matter. Either you're being purposely obtuse or you're dead to the spirit (ie: the natural man...

Of course there is. And the example that Paul puts forth concerning Abraham was not only written for Abraham's sake but also for ours (Rom 4:23-24).

Jesus died for the ungodly (Rom 5:6). And the very reason He can declare the ungodly to be justified (Rom 4:5). Jesus did not justify the ungodly for gifts, but rather to demonstrate God's love (Rom 5:8). Do you really not know this?

I don't think you're grasping Paul's arguments in Rom. chapter 4, though. God calls the things that be not as though they were (Rom 4:17), and that is what Abraham believed. He saw by faith what he was unable to see by sight. Abraham believed the declarative promise of God, without having to...

That's the performance of the oath (or "promise") made to Abraham, not the oath, per se. Read it, it's right there in the text: Gen 26:3 Sojourn in this land, and I will be with thee, and will bless thee; for unto thee, and unto thy seed, I will give all these countries, and I will perform...

In Gen 15:5-6, the example Paul is using in Romans chapter 4, the "promise" God made to Abraham proceeded Abraham's faith therein. Whatever intrinsic righteousness you believe Abraham had, it was not conditional to God making the promise.

Jesus. Jesus is declaring righteous the ungodly. And, He died for all the ungodly. Not some ungodly, but all the ungodly (Rom 3:10). And, as such, all are justified to life (Rom 5:18), freely so by grace (Rom 3:24). However, not all have it revealed to them, until faith. That's the concept...

It seems some, or even most, of the posts are conflating the "objective" declaration of justification with it's "subjective" imputation. Justification, like forgiveness and reconciliation, is really a two sided coin. Being both objective and subjective. This concept is taught by the example...

What specifically is "on me"? I believe also in Joh 3:3, 3:5 and 3:7 concerning regeneration (the new birth). Nothing Jesus said to Nicodemus contradicts what Solomon spoke in Ecclesiastes. As for Joh 3:36. John here is contrasting the two elements of the soul: "flesh" (not believing, not...

Scripture tells us using clear and unambiguous terms where the body and it's nature (the flesh) departs to and where the spirit of man goes upon death. And it's for all. Not just "Christ Rejectors", or those "never born again", but rather for all. Ecc 3:20 All go to one place; all are from...

It depends on your understanding of the term "devil" and/or "Satan". Peter's fleshly desires, called the interests "of man", were specifically rebuked by Jesus as being of "Satan" (Mat 16:23, Mar 8:33). Was Peter born of God and did Peter have eternal life when he tried to prevent Jesus going...

I'm not able to find any passage in the NT where "ἀπόλλυμι" means to "stray" or "straying" or to "wander" in context. Perhaps you could find one for me. To stray or wander about would be translated from the Greek word "πλανάω", found here: 1Pe 2:25 For you were straying (Gk "πλανωμενα")...

Judas was born to fulfill prophecy. And, he did exactly what he was ordained by God to do. I even underlined that part of the text to emphasis the context of Joh 17:12. It would have been better for Judas not to have been born to fulfill that roll of prophecy. However, betrayal in order to...

Yes, the term "perdition" (Gk: ἀπώλεια) is a noun derived from the Greek term ἀπόλλυμι having a meaning of destroyed fully, complete ruin and total destruction. It's the same term used by Jesus in Luk 19:10, the "lost" sheep of Israel (Mat 15:24), etc., of which we're told He came to seek...