Search results

I agree with you that Matthew does. The reasoning for it is the question. Because he knew that Isaiah had sex with his wife and she had a baby.

My point is that the scholars do not agree on the usage of the various words for virgin. They have been at it for centuries, nothing we will settle here. You have to look at the circumstance of how it is used in the storyline. Isaiah had sex with his wife and she had a baby. That is the context...

Two different women?

No it sounds like the missionary position to me.

Well that is where we disagree. Can you think of any other words that define the process of procreation?

Matthew never explains what he meant. Words and their definitions are what makes up the scriptures.....no smoke signals.

That is clear a mud. What do you mean by agency? Of which I don't think you know.

It is easy for me because the scriptures refute you.

Absolutely correct.

As I said no one has ever won this debate.... Parthenos (παρθένος) is a Greek term meaning “virgin” or “maiden,” referring to an unmarried woman whose sexual purity is intact, and by extension, symbolizing spiritual or covenantal purity. Meaning of “hā·‘al·māh” in Greek In the Hebrew Bible...

What do you mean by "in this context" Yes I know what the scriptures say but the end result Yeshua was Yahweh's Son. Next time you see them ask how the Holy Spirit was involved with Yeshua's conception. The scriptures are lean on deals.

Sounds like the missionary position to me. And again, do you think Yeshua is the Son of the Holy Spirit?

I have addressed every one of your statements.

I am not sure what you are trying to imply? Joseph had no part in Yeshua's conception and Michal died before she could have children. Scriptures won't go into sexual details is just stating the facts. Every word connected to procreation is used. That is good enough for me.

If you want to draw me into a discussion of the various words for virgin. That is quite the topic they have been debating the terms for virginity for a long time.....no one wins and the full topic is to explicit for this forum. And here is a thought.....The Septuagint calls Danah a παρθένος...

Boy you have got to be kidding! Basic understanding of the word imply sexual intercourse. LOL

LOL Do you believe that Yeshua is not the Son of Yahweh? Does Yeshua ever identify Himself as the Son of the Holy Spirit? I did show that Yahweh is the Father of Yeshua and all the associated words. And you can call them all spirits.

I think he has addressed them and I have addressed them. The fact remains that after conceiving a baby from Yahweh, Miriam is not identified as a virgin. The only thing that Chapter 7 of Isaiah has in common with the New Testament is, that both women had sex and they both had a baby.

I have addressed them several times.

This phrase only means that Joseph did not have sex with her until after Yeshua was born. But I am curious, what do you think it means?