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@theefaith, I've noticed you posted about Dan 13 in several posts. Seems like the chapter of the day for you. To answer your question, let me ask this. Is the Books in the EOC Bible but not in the RCC Bible the inspired word of God or not?

Did you mean to refer to Scripture or tradition in these posts? Otherwise, Tradition is oral Scripture; is that what you are saying?

Wonderful but irrelevant to the question of this thread. Appeal to Diversion. A common tactic of trinitarians. This thread is about Acts 2:36, not the Greek language or 2 Peter.

This tells me you have lost the argument to retreat to a different language.

That does not answer the question of this thread. We will have to agree to disagree that v1 and v11 are not referring to a different quantity of people. Basic definition shows God is synonymous with LORD but not lord. As I already pointed out, the Bible has many lords, of which Jesus is one...

I did answer. You just did not like my answer. B. Jesus is our Lord and Savior (just not the LORD God almighty). What is your answer to this thread’s question?

I’ve address this over 100 times. Trinitarians deliberately confuse the LORD God almighty with the many lords in the Bible. Yes, Jesus is our Lord but he is not the LORD God almighty. Hope this helps.

Nice flaming attempt to demand trinitarian interpretation. V17 clarifies these are 2 beings and God alone is the Father - as every epistle states. Hope that helps. To: Those who, through the righteousness of our God and of our Deliverer Yeshua the Messiah, have been given the same kind of...

No one said anything about rejecting Jesus as our Savior and master. It is just that the only God is Jesus' God as Jesus himself said at John 17:3. What do you say about that?

LOL, If this were true there would be no Great Schism and no Reformation movement.

God has already told us. His word is written. Nowhere is the doctrine of the trinity. There is no verse that declares Jesus is just as divine as His Father, who alone is God. Jesus himself says God is greater than him, knows more than him, sent him, told him what to say and referred to his God...

That is where you are totally wrong. Everything in the passage prohibits God being triune! Logic Definition Language Usage The verse does not say anything about the Father! It refers to God, in his unitarian nature. This unitarian God made Jesus something is what the passage says. Trinitarians...

You can call me whatever you want. The fact is, considering the Bible in its entirety, it is all written by monotheist Jews who reject the trinity to this day. This explains why the trinity is not in the Bible. The doctrine of the trinity is so important, not one of the 66 books spells out the...

Yes, John 20:31 explains how everything he wrote is to prove Jesus is the Messiah. Logically this means, NOTHING he wrote can be take to prove anything else.

Contradictions are not both true.

Option 3 is illogical. The subject of sentences are not the object of sentences. God does the acting. Jesus is acted upon. These are not the same Being. To support your doctrine, you have to abuse language. '<God> <made> <Jesus both Lord> and <Christ>' is analogous to other expressions we...

Curtis, Thank you for this outstanding analysis. I eagerly await Mungo's petulant reply. Peter

Contradictions are not both true. But that is dualism for you! In my experience trinitarians deliberately conflate the one and only LORD God, almighty, our Father, with the many lords of the Bible. Yes, Jesus is our lord; a lord among many in the monotheist Bible. This makes them unconsciously...

Not myopic. Just proper application of context. I don’t reject the beginning of the most anti-trinitarian book of the Bible. The only God is Jesus’ God. Jesus said this in 17:3.

That’s just it. You did nothing of the kind, confusing explicit with figurative, etc. I’ve explained before that the whole reason trinitarians MUST blast so many verses is their doctrine is not contained as an explicit teaching. That leaves synthesizing whatever you want from any snipets.