˒ĕlōhı̂m: Plural Persons, or Majesty?

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

˒ĕlōhı̂m: Plural Persons, or Majesty?

The very first verse in the Holy Bible reads, “In the beginning ˒ĕlōhı̂m Created the heavens and the earth” (Genesis 1:1)

“˒ĕlōhı̂m” is not a Name of God, but more a description or identity of the Supreme Divine Being in the Old Testament. “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, is masculine in gender, and plural in number. It has most probably from the root “˒ēl”, or “˒ĕlōah”, both are also masculine, but singular.

How are we to understand the plural form “˒ĕlōhı̂m”? The Jews understand it to mean:

“The most common of the originally appellative names of God is Elohim (אלהים), plural in form though commonly construed with a singular verb or adjective. This is, most probably, to be explained as the plural of majesty or excellence, expressing high dignity or greatness” (Jewish Encyclopedia)

The Jews, it must be remembered, do not accept that the God of the Old Testament, is a “Plurality of Persons”. To them, God is just the One Person, Who is the Father.

Those who also reject that the God of the Bible is more than One Person, and anti-Trinitarian, are known as Unitarian, who, like the Jews, believe that God is just the One Person, Who is the Father.

The plural “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, as we are told here, by the Jews and Unitarians, is used to show the “Majesty”, and “Greatness”, and “Excellence”, of the God of the Old Testament. Some Hebrew grammarians call the plural “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, the “plural of Majesty”. There is no evidence in the entire Old Testament, to support this definition. It has been thought up by those, like the Jews and Unitarians, and others who reject that the God of the Bible is more than One Person. The evidence from the Old Testament, will show that “plural of Majesty”, is no more than human conjecture.

In the first place, “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, is not a unique word, that is used only for The One True God of the Old Testament. It is not the same as the Name of God, “Yehôvâh”, which is only used for The One True God of the Old Testament, and is always in the singular. Why was not the singular, “˒ēl”, or “˒ĕlōah”, not used in every instance in the Old Testament, for The One True God,as opposed to the false “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, idols, and human judges? Are we to assume, that it is only when “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, is used for “God”, that it means “plural of majesty”; but, the singular “˒ēl”, and “˒ĕlōah”, when used for “God”, does not mean, “Majesty”, or “Greatness”, or “Excellence”? We shall see, that there are clear places in the Old Testament, where the the singular “˒ēl”, and “˒ĕlōah” are used, and the meaning does mean, “Majesty”, or “Greatness”, or “Excellence”.

Secondly, there are many instances in the Old Testament, where “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, is used for false “gods”. In Exodus chapter 20, when The Ten Commandments were Written by God:

“And God (˒ĕlōhı̂m) spoke all these words, saying, “I am the LORD (Yehôvâh) your God (˒ĕlōhı̂m)...“You shall have no other gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m) beside Me” (verses 1-3)

And verse 23, “You shall not make gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m) of silver to be with me, nor shall you make for yourselves gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m) of gold”

Does “˒ĕlōhı̂m” in all of these uses mean, “plural of Majesty”?

Another good example, is Psalm 82, which shows that the plural “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, cannot be used as “plural of majesty”.

Verse 1 reads: “ God (˒ĕlōhı̂m) has taken His place in the divine council; in the midst of the gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m) He holds judgment”

In verse 6 it says, “I said, “You are gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m), sons of the Most High, all of you”

verse 8, “Arise, O God (˒ĕlōhı̂m), judge the earth; for you shall inherit all the nations!”

Here we have “˒ĕlōhı̂m” used twice for The One True God of the Bible; and once for false “gods”, and once for “judges”. Each time it is the same plural “˒ĕlōhı̂m”. Are we to understand that the same meaning, “plural of majesty”, is applied to the false gods, and human judges?

In other places we also have “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, used for humans who are “judges”

Exodus 21:6, “then his master must bring him to the judges (˒ĕlōhı̂m)” (KJV, NKJV, NET)

Exodus 22:8, 9, “then the owner of the house will be brought before the judges (˒ĕlōhı̂m)...come before the judges (˒ĕlōhı̂m), and the one whom the judges (˒ĕlōhı̂m) declare guilty ” (KJV, NKJV, NET)

“˒ĕlōhı̂m”, is also used for false idols, as in Genesis 31:30, 32 “And now you have gone away because you longed greatly for your father's house, but why did you steal my gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m)?...Anyone with whom you find your gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m) shall not live”. Genesis 35:2,4 “So Jacob said to his household and to all who were with him, “Put away the foreign gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m) that are among you and purify yourselves and change your garments...So they gave to Jacob all the foreign gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m) that they had”. Exodus 32:31, “So Moses returned to the LORD and said, “Alas, this people has sinned a great sin. They have made for themselves gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m) of gold”

In Exodus 7:1, God tells Moses, “And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god (˒ĕlōhı̂m) to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet”

“˒ĕlōhı̂m” is used about 2600 times in the Old Testament for The One True God. However, as we can see, it is also used for false gods, false idols, human judges, etc. If, as those who argue that we are to understand the plural form of “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, to describe God’s “Majesty”, and “Greatness”, and “Excellence”; then are we to take these same meanings, for the false gods, false idols, human judges, etc? How exactly, can these be “majestic” or “great” or “excellent”? It is absurd!

I shall give examples from the Old Testament, where both the singular forms, “˒ēl”, and “˒ĕlōah”, and used for Almighty God, to describe His “Majesty”, and “Greatness”, and “Excellence”. So, why could these words have been used in every instance in the Old Testament, for The One True God? This would have made it very clear, that GOD in the Old Testament, is just One Person, Who is the Father.

For the singular, “˒ēl”, there are examples that show it is used to decrible God’s “Majesty”, and “Greatness”, and “Excellence”:

Genesis 14:18-22, “And Melchizedek king of Salem brought forth bread and wine: and he was the priest of the Most High (‛elyôn) God (˒ēl). And he blessed him and said, “Blessed be Abram by God ('êl) Most High (‛elyôn), Possessor of heaven and earth. And blessed be the Most High (‛elyôn) God (˒ēl)... But Abram said to the king of Sodom, “I have lifted my hand to the LORD (yehôvâh), God (˒ēl) Most High, Possessor of heaven and earth”

Deuteronomy 7:21, “You shall not be in dread of them, for the LORD (yehôvâh) your God (˒ĕlōhı̂m) is in your midst, a great and awesome God (˒ēl)”

Joshua 22:22, “The LORD (yehôvâh) God (˒ēl) of gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m), the LORD (yehôvâh) God (˒ēl) of gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m), he knoweth, and Israel he shall know; if it be in rebellion, or if in transgression against the LORD (yehôvâh), (save us not this day,)”

2 Samuel 22:33, “This God (˒ēl) is my strong refuge and has made my way blameless”

Psalm 18:2, “The LORD (yehôvâh) is my rock, and my fortress, and my deliverer; my God (˒ēl), my strength, in whom I will trust; my buckler, and the horn of my salvation, and my high tower”

Psalm 90:2, “Before the mountains were brought forth, or ever you had formed the earth and the world, from Everlasting to Everlasting you are God (˒ēl)”

Psalm 95:3, “For the LORD (yehôvâh) is a great God (˒ēl), and a great King above all gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m)”

Jeremiah 32:18, “Thou shewest lovingkindness unto thousands, and recompensest the iniquity of the fathers into the bosom of their children after them: the Great (gâdôl), the Mighty (gibwōr) God,(˒ēl) the LORD (yehôvâh) of hosts, is His Name”

Isaiah 9:6, is a Prophecy of The Messiah, Jesus Christ. One of Names by which He will be called, is “’êl gib·bō·wr”, translated even in the New World Translation, as “Mighty God”. The same Hebrew is found in chapter 10:21; Jeremiah 32:18; Deuteronomy 10:17. It is clear that there are Two distinct Persons Who are Mighty God.

The same can be seen for the singular ˒ĕlōah:

Deuteronomy 32:15, 17, “then he forsook God (˒ĕlōah) which made him, and lightly esteemed the Rock of his salvation...They sacrificed unto devils, not to God (˒ĕlōah); to gods (˒ĕlōhı̂m) whom they knew not”

Job 11:7, “Canst thou by searching find out God (˒ĕlōah)? canst thou find out the Almighty (shadday) unto perfection?”

Job 22:26, “For then shalt thou have thy delight in the Almighty (shadday), and shalt lift up thy face unto God (˒ĕlōah)”

Job 27:10, “Will he delight himself in the Almighty (shadday)? will he always call upon God (˒ĕlōah)?”

Job 33:12, “Behold, in this thou art not just: I will answer thee, that God (˒ĕlōah) is Greater (râbâh) than man”

Psalm 18:31, “For who is God (˒ĕlōah) save the LORD (yehôvâh)? or who is a Rock save our God (˒ĕlōhı̂m)?”

Psalm 114:7, “Tremble, thou earth, at the presence of the Lord ('âdôn), at the presence of the God (˒ĕlōah) of Jacob”

Isaiah 44:8, “Fear not, nor be afraid; have I not told you from of old and declared it? And you are my witnesses! Is there a God (˒ĕlōah) besides me? There is no Rock; I know not any.”

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

In all of these examples, it is clear that both “˒ēl”, and “˒ĕlōah”, are used to describe “Majesty”, and “Greatness”, and “Excellence”, of The One True God of the Old Testament. So why would the plural “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, be used, for what the singular already does?

It is clear that the use of the plural “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, is not to describe the “Majesty”, and “Greatness”, and “Excellence”, of The One True God of the Old Testament, which is already done by the singular, “˒ēl”, and “˒ĕlōah”. There is also clear evidence in the Old Testament, to show that the plural “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, is used because The One True God of the Old Testament, is not One Person, Who is the Father.

If, as those who argue for Unitarianism, God is One Person, there can be no doubt, that Genesis 1:1, would have been written, “bərē’šîṯ bārā’ ’ĕl/˒ĕlōah ’ēṯ haššāmayim wə’ēṯ hā’āreṣ”, where the singular, “˒ēl”, or “˒ĕlōah”, would have been used instead of the plural “˒ĕlōhı̂m”; this would also agree with the singular verb, “bā·rā (Created)”. In the Book of Isaiah, we read, “Thus says God (hā·’êl, lit, The God), the LORD (yehôvâh), Who Created the heavens and stretched them out, Who spread out the earth and what comes from it, Who gives breath to the people on it and spirit to those who walk in it” (42:5). In referring to the Creation of the entire universe, as in Genesis 1:1, Isaiah uses the singular “’êl”, and not the plural “˒ĕlōhı̂m”.

From Genesis 1:2, onwards, we have a more detailed Account of the Creation of “the heavens and the earth”.

When we get to verses 26 and 27, it becomes clear why the plural “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, and not the singular “˒ēl”, or “˒ĕlōah”, is used in verse 1, and in over 2600 times in the Old Testament.

“Then God said, “Let Us Make man in Our Image, according to Our Likeness; let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, over the birds of the air, and over the cattle, over all the earth and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.”. So God Created man in His Own Image; in the Image of God He created him; male and female He created them”

In verse 26, we have “˒ĕlōhı̂m” (mas. plural), as the Speaker, Who says, “let US make (na-‘ă-śeh, plural) man, in OUR Image (bəṣaləmēnû, plural) , according to OUR Likeness (kiḏəmûṯēnû, plural)

It must be asked, if God were Unitarian, then surely we would have expected verse 26 to read:

“Then God said, I have Made man in My Image, according to My Likeness”

In verse 27 it goes on to say, “So God (ĕlōhı̂m) Created man in His Own Image (bə·ṣal·mōw) ; in the Image (bə·ṣe·lem) of God (ĕlōhı̂m) He created him”. As we read in Genesis 9:6, “for in the Image of God (bə·ṣe·lem ˒ĕlōhı̂m) made He man”. Why the plural in verse 26?

Those who reject the Plurality of Persons in “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, have suggested, as in the Jewish Palestinian Targum, “And the Lord said to the angels who ministered before Him, who had been created in the second day of the creation of the world, Let us make man in Our image, in Our likeness”. However, in verse 27, it reads, “And the Lord created man in His likeness: In the image of the Lord He created him”. In verse 26, God is supposed to be talking to His created “angels”, that He was going to Create humans, in OUR (God and His angels), Image and Likeness. But, in verse 27, and 9:6, it is clear, that humans are Created in the Image and Likeness of God, with no mention of the “angels”! Some have even suggested that God is here talking to His “divine council”. This is no more than human speculation, as there is not a single verse in the entire Old Testament, that even hints humans are Created in the Image and Likeness of God and His angels!

It is interesting, that in another Jewish Targum, The Jerusalem,verse 27 reads, “And the Word (Memra) of the Lord created man in His likeness, in the likeness of the presence of the Lord He created him, the male and his yoke-fellow He created them”. In the Targums, the “Memra of Yahweh”, is a Person, and Himself also Yahweh. Clear that the Jews themselves admit to Creation by more than One Person.

Some quote Malachi 2:10, as their “proof”, that the Father alone is the Creator; “Have we not all one Father (’e·ḥāḏ ’āḇ) ? Has not one God (’e·ḥāḏ ’êl, sing) Created (bə·rā·’ā·nū) us? Why then are we faithless to one another, profaning the covenant of our fathers?”

Similarly, in Isaiah 51:13, “and have forgotten the LORD (Yehôvâh), your Maker (‘ō·śe·ḵā, sing), Who stretched out the heavens and laid the foundations of the earth”

But, in Job 35:10, it is very interesting, “But none says, ‘Where is God my Maker, who gives songs in the night”. Here “God” is “˒ĕlōah”, masculine, singular; and “Maker”, “‘ō·śāy”, masculine, plural, literally, “God my Makers”. Again, why the singular “˒ĕlōah”, with the plural, “‘ō·śāy”? It is clear from this, that “˒ĕlōah”, is used to show the “Essential Unity”; and “‘ō·śāy”, for the “Plurality of Persons”. There is not other explanation for this. We should have expected, the singular “‘ō·śê·nî”.

This is also seen in Isaiah 54:5, “For your Maker (‘ō·śa·yiḵ, plural, your Makers) is your Husband (ḇō·‘ă·la·yiḵ, plural, your Husbands), the LORD of Hosts is His Name (šə·mōw, sing); and the Holy One of Israel is your Redeemer, the God of the whole earth he is called”. Why not as in Isaiah 51:13, where we read the singular?

Likewise, in Ecclesiastes 12:1, “Remember also your Creator in the days of your youth”

Here “your Creator”, “bō·wr·’e·ḵā”, is the masculine, plural, “your Creators”. Why the plural?

Genesis 46:3, “Then he said, “I am God (hā·’êl) , the God (ĕ·lō·hê) of your father”

Literally, “I am the God, the Gods”

Exodus 20:5, “You shall not bow down to them or serve them, for I the LORD your God am a jealous God”

“’ā·nō·ḵî Yehôvâh ’ĕ·lō·he·ḵā ’êl qan·nā”, literally, “I Yahweh your Gods God jealous” (also Deuteronomy 4:24, etc)

2 Samuel 22:32, “For who is God (’êl), but the LORD (Yehôvâh)? And who is a Rock, except our God (’ĕ·lō·hê·nū) ?”

“God...Yahweh...Gods”

The singular ’êl, in these, and other passages, can only denote the “Essential Unity” of God; and the plural “˒ĕlōhı̂m”, the “Plurality of Persons”.

There is also clear evidence in the Old Testament, of more than One Person Who is The Creator.

In Job chapter 38 we read, “Then the Lord answered Job out of the whirlwind, and said...Where were you when I laid the foundations of the earth?” (verses 1, 4)

And Isaiah 44:6, “This is what the LORD says, He who is the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of armies: ‘I am the first and I am the last, And there is no god besides Me”

Here we have “Yehôvâh”, as The Creator, and the Eternal God.

In Isaiah 48:12-13, it says:

“Listen to Me, Jacob, and Israel, the one called by Me: I am He; I am the first, I am also the last. My own hand founded the earth, and My right hand spread out the heavens; when I summoned them, they stood up together”

verse 16 reads,

“Approach Me and listen to this. From the beginning I have not spoken in secret; from the time anything existed, I was there.” And now the Lord God has sent Me and His Spirit”

Here the Speaker (1st Person, singular), Who is Himself The Creator and the Eternal God, says, that “’ă·ḏō·nāy Yehôvâh”, is SENDING (šə·lā·ḥa·nî , 3rd person, Another Person) Himself and the Spirit (wə·rū·ḥōw 3rd person, Another Person). Verse 17 confirms Who the Speaker is, “Thus saith the LORD, thy Redeemer, the Holy One of Israel; I am the LORD thy God which teacheth thee to profit, which leadeth thee by the way that thou shouldest go”

In Proverbs 9:10, we read, “The fear of the LORD is the beginning of wisdom, and the knowledge of the Holy One is insight”

“the LORD”, “Yehôvâh”, masculine, singular

“the Holy One”, “qə·ḏō·šîm”, masculine, plural, “the Holy Ones”

Proverbs 30:3, “I have not learned wisdom, nor have I knowledge of the Holy One”

“the Holy One”, “qə·ḏō·šîm”, masculine, plural, “the Holy Ones”

The evidence from the Old Testament is overwhelmingly against God being Unitarian. It is abundantly clear to those who want to know what the Bible really teaches, that “˒ĕlōhı̂m” is not a single Person.

 

[tigger 2]

Elohim

The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia says:
“It is characteristic of Heb[rew] that extension, magnitude, and dignity, as well as actual multiplicity, are expressed by the pl[ural].” - Eerdmans Publishing Co., 1984 ed., Vol. II, p. 1265.

Today’s Dictionary of the Bible, 1982, Bethany House Publishers, written by trinitarian scholars, says of elohim:
“Applied to the one true God, it is the result in the Hebrew idiom of a plural magnitude or majesty. When applied to the heathen gods, angels, or judges ..., Elohim is plural in sense as well as form.” - p. 208.

Both Exodus 4:16 and 7:1 show God calling Moses "a god" (elohim). This alone shows the error of some that the plural elohim must mean a "plural oneness" unless we want to believe Moses was a multiple-person Moses!

And The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Zondervan Publishing, 1986, tells us:
“Elohim, though plural in form, is seldom used in the OT as such (i.e. ‘gods’). Even a single heathen god can be designated with the plural elohim (e.g. Jdg. 11:24; 1 Ki. 11:5; 2 Ki. 1:2). In Israel the plural is understood as the plural of fullness; God is the God who really, and in the fullest sense of the word, is God.” - p. 67, Vol. 2.

The NIV Study Bible says about elohim in its footnote for Gen. 1:1:
“This use of the plural expresses intensification rather than number and has been called the plural of majesty, or of potentiality.” – p. 6, Zondervan Publ., 1985.

And the New American Bible (St. Joseph ed.) tells us in its “Bible Dictionary” in the appendix:
“ELOHIM. Ordinary Hebrew word for God. It is the plural of majesty.” – Catholic Book Publishing Co., 1970.

A Dictionary of the Bible by William Smith (Smith’s Bible Dictionary, p. 220, Hendrickson Publ.) declares:
“The fanciful idea that [elohim] referred to the trinity of persons in the Godhead hardly finds now a supporter among scholars. It is either what grammarians call the plural of majesty, or it denotes the fullness of divine strength, the sum of the powers displayed by God.”

And the prestigious work edited by Hastings says about this:

"It is exegesis of a mischievous if pious sort that would find the doctrine of the Trinity in the plural form elohim [God]" ("God," Encyclopedia of Religion and Ethics).

EVIDENCE

To show how ancient Jewish scholars themselves understood this we can look at the work of the seventy Hebrew scholars who translated the ancient Hebrew Scriptures (OT) into Greek several centuries before the time of Christ. The Greek language did not use the “plural of excellence” that the Hebrew did. So, if we see a plural used in the Greek Septuagint, it was really intended to represent more than one individual!

So how is elohim rendered in the Greek Septuagint by those ancient Hebrew scholars? Whenever it clearly refers to Jehovah God, it is always found to be singular in number (just as in New Testament Greek): theos ! Whenever elohim clearly refers to a plural (in number) noun, it is always found to be plural in number in Greek (just as in the New Testament Greek): theoi or theois (“gods”).

For example: “I am the Lord thy God [elohim - plural of excellence in Hebrew becomes theos - singular in the Greek Septuagint]” - Ex. 20:2. And “know that the Lord he is God [as always, the plural elohim, as applied to the God of Israel, becomes the singular, theos in the Septuagint] he made us...” - Ps. 100:3.

But when elohim really does mean plural in number, we see it rendered into the Greek plural for “gods” in the Septuagint: “Thou shalt not worship their gods [elohim in Hebrew becomes theois - plural in the Greek Septuagint], nor serve them .... And thou shalt serve the Lord thy God [singular - Greek].” - Ex. 23:24-25.

We see exactly the same thing happening for translations of the plural elohim in the ancient Septuagint and in the Christian NT.

Yes, all the NT Bible writers, whether quoting from the OT or writing their own God-inspired NT scriptures, always used the singular “God” (theos) in NT Greek when speaking of the only true God of the Bible. (If the plural form had been used for the only true God, we would even discover a new “trinity” at John 10:34.)

It is absolutely incredible that John, Paul, and the other inspired NT writers would not have used the plural Greek form to translate the plural Hebrew form of “God” if they had intended in any degree to imply that God was in any way more than one person!

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Elohim

The International Standard Bible Encyclopedia says:
“It is characteristic of Heb[rew] that extension, magnitude, and dignity, as well as actual multiplicity, are expressed by the pl[ural].” - Eerdmans Publishing Co., 1984 ed., Vol. II, p. 1265.

Today’s Dictionary of the Bible, 1982, Bethany House Publishers, written by trinitarian scholars, says of elohim:
“Applied to the one true God, it is the result in the Hebrew idiom of a plural magnitude or majesty. When applied to the heathen gods, angels, or judges ..., Elohim is plural in sense as well as form.” - p. 208.

Both Exodus 4:16 and 7:1 show God calling Moses "a god" (elohim). This alone shows the error of some that the plural elohim must mean a "plural oneness" unless we want to believe Moses was a multiple-person Moses!

And The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, Zondervan Publishing, 1986, tells us:
“Elohim, though plural in form, is seldom used in the OT as such (i.e. ‘gods’). Even a single heathen god can be designated with the plural elohim (e.g. Jdg. 11:24; 1 Ki. 11:5; 2 Ki. 1:2). In Israel the plural is understood as the plural of fullness; God is the God who really, and in the fullest sense of the word, is God.” - p. 67, Vol. 2.

The NIV Study Bible says about elohim in its footnote for Gen. 1:1:
“This use of the plural expresses intensification rather than number and has been called the plural of majesty, or of potentiality.” – p. 6, Zondervan Publ., 1985.

And the New American Bible (St. Joseph ed.) tells us in its “Bible Dictionary” in the appendix:
“ELOHIM. Ordinary Hebrew word for God. It is the plural of majesty.” – Catholic Book Publishing Co., 1970.

A Dictionary of the Bible by William Smith (Smith’s Bible Dictionary, p. 220, Hendrickson Publ.) declares:
“The fanciful idea that [elohim] referred to the trinity of persons in the Godhead hardly finds now a supporter among scholars. It is either what grammarians call the plural of majesty, or it denotes the fullness of divine strength, the sum of the powers displayed by God.”

And the prestigious work edited by Hastings says about this:

"It is exegesis of a mischievous if pious sort that would find the doctrine of the Trinity in the plural form elohim [God]" ("God," Encyclopedia of Religion and Ethics).

EVIDENCE

To show how ancient Jewish scholars themselves understood this we can look at the work of the seventy Hebrew scholars who translated the ancient Hebrew Scriptures (OT) into Greek several centuries before the time of Christ. The Greek language did not use the “plural of excellence” that the Hebrew did. So, if we see a plural used in the Greek Septuagint, it was really intended to represent more than one individual!

So how is elohim rendered in the Greek Septuagint by those ancient Hebrew scholars? Whenever it clearly refers to Jehovah God, it is always found to be singular in number (just as in New Testament Greek): theos ! Whenever elohim clearly refers to a plural (in number) noun, it is always found to be plural in number in Greek (just as in the New Testament Greek): theoi or theois (“gods”).

For example: “I am the Lord thy God [elohim - plural of excellence in Hebrew becomes theos - singular in the Greek Septuagint]” - Ex. 20:2. And “know that the Lord he is God [as always, the plural elohim, as applied to the God of Israel, becomes the singular, theos in the Septuagint] he made us...” - Ps. 100:3.

But when elohim really does mean plural in number, we see it rendered into the Greek plural for “gods” in the Septuagint: “Thou shalt not worship their gods [elohim in Hebrew becomes theois - plural in the Greek Septuagint], nor serve them .... And thou shalt serve the Lord thy God [singular - Greek].” - Ex. 23:24-25.

We see exactly the same thing happening for translations of the plural elohim in the ancient Septuagint and in the Christian NT.

Yes, all the NT Bible writers, whether quoting from the OT or writing their own God-inspired NT scriptures, always used the singular “God” (theos) in NT Greek when speaking of the only true God of the Bible. (If the plural form had been used for the only true God, we would even discover a new “trinity” at John 10:34.)

It is absolutely incredible that John, Paul, and the other inspired NT writers would not have used the plural Greek form to translate the plural Hebrew form of “God” if they had intended in any degree to imply that God was in any way more than one person!

there is no "plural of majesty" in the Hebrew, this was invented to counter the fact that the God of the Bible is not one Person, as the evidence clearly shows. As there is also the singular used for God in the OT, which is used for His "Majesty and Glory", there was no need to have used the plural. As I have shown, the plural "˒ĕlōhı̂m", is also used for false "gods", and false "idols", and humans, how can it mean "plural of majesty", as used for these?

The plural for God is not required in the New Testament, as it is clear from passages like John 1:1, 18, that the Father and Jesus Christ are God; and from Acts 5:3-4, the Holy Spirit is God.

 

[tigger 2]

It would be wise for you to read carefully the "EVIDENCE" portion of post #3 above.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

It would be wise for you to read carefully the "EVIDENCE" portion of post #3 above.

I have check the so called "evidence" during my own research when writing the OP, there is no one who can answer the simple fact, IF "˒ĕlōhı̂m" is used for "plural of majesty", then when used for the FALSE "gods" and IDOLS and WICKED human "judges", it can have the same meaning! I have also shown that both “˒ēl”, and “˒ĕlōah”, which are SINGLAR, are used in many places, where the meaning clearly denotes God's MAJESTY, so WHY is the plural used? This is not addrssed in your "evidence". IF, as you suggest, that the plural denotes God's MAJESTY, then WHY did the New Testament Writers, not use the plural "Θεοί" for God once? When the plural form "˒ĕlōhı̂m" is used in the OT, it almost certainly is for many gods, and many idols and many judges, which shows that it is not used for a single one.

Why did Genesis 1:1 not read “In the beginning ˒ĕl Created the heavens and the earth”?

What of the evidence that I have given, where in places like Job 35:10, we have, “But none says, ‘Where is God my Maker, who gives songs in the night”. Here “God” is “˒ĕlōah”, masculine, singular; and “Maker”, “‘ō·śāy”, masculine, plural, literally, “God my Makers”. Again, why the singular “˒ĕlōah”, with the plural, “‘ō·śāy”? Why is God referred to as CREATORS and MAKERS, and HOLY ONES, in the PLURAL, when the same SINGULAR readings would have sufficed?

Nothing that you have shown in your "evidence" actually "proves" anything, because one person is blindly following what others have said, which is WRONG.

 

[Webers_Home]

.
• Gen 1:26a . . And God said: Let us make Man in our image, after our
likeness.

The introduction of the plural personal pronouns "us" and "our" into the
narrative at this point has given rise to some interesting speculation
regarding the identities of the antecedents. But we need not guess because
within the context of the first chapter of Genesis, God is revealed as:

1) Himself

2) His spirit

3) His voice.

Those three aspects of God's existence took part in creating the cosmos-- all
its forms of life, matter, and energy --and seeing as how they are spoken of
as "us" and as "our" then I think it's safe to regard those three aspects as
sentient beings, i.e. persons.

FAQ: God's voice is a person?

REPLY: Yes; a very person.

• John 1:1-3 . . In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God,
and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things
were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was
made.

The Greek noun translated "Word" is logos (log'-os) which basically refers to
something spoken as opposed to something going on in one's thoughts, viz;
logos refers to voice, i.e. speech; for example:

"By the voice of God the heavens were of old" (2Pet 3:5)

Please don't ask me how God's voice is a sentient being because it is just too
far beyond the capability of my below-average IQ to comprehend.

What's even more mysterious is how God's voice became an h.sapiens.

• John 1:14 . . So the Logos became human and lived here on earth among
us.
_

 

[tigger 2]

I have check the so called "evidence" during my own research when writing the OP, there is no one who can answer the simple fact, IF "˒ĕlōhı̂m" is used for "plural of majesty", then when used for the FALSE "gods" and IDOLS and WICKED human "judges", it can have the same meaning! I have also shown that both “˒ēl”, and “˒ĕlōah”, which are SINGLAR, are used in many places, where the meaning clearly denotes God's MAJESTY, so WHY is the plural used? This is not addrssed in your "evidence". IF, as you suggest, that the plural denotes God's MAJESTY, then WHY did the New Testament Writers, not use the plural "Θεοί" for God once? When the plural form "˒ĕlōhı̂m" is used in the OT, it almost certainly is for many gods, and many idols and many judges, which shows that it is not used for a single one.

Why did Genesis 1:1 not read “In the beginning ˒ĕl Created the heavens and the earth”?

What of the evidence that I have given, where in places like Job 35:10, we have, “But none says, ‘Where is God my Maker, who gives songs in the night”. Here “God” is “˒ĕlōah”, masculine, singular; and “Maker”, “‘ō·śāy”, masculine, plural, literally, “God my Makers”. Again, why the singular “˒ĕlōah”, with the plural, “‘ō·śāy”? Why is God referred to as CREATORS and MAKERS, and HOLY ONES, in the PLURAL, when the same SINGULAR readings would have sufficed?

Nothing that you have shown in your "evidence" actually "proves" anything, because one person is blindly following what others have said, which is WRONG.

........................................
"one person is blindly following what others have said" ?
I see where this may apply to you, but I suspect you are referring to me.

All 15 of the sources quoted in my study of Elohim are, as carefully cited, from respected trinitarian authorities (and a few Jewish sources) which I have looked up personally. None are from JW sources!! I could have easily found many more, but considered this to be enough.

The same goes for the evidence I presented. I have personally looked up these things in the Septuagint and NT interlinears. The information there overwhelms anything you have presented --- if only you could understand it.

 

[TahitiRun]

˒ĕlōhı̂m: Plural Persons, or Majesty?.....

Three witnesses would argue against the "Plural Persons" Genesis creation account. Here they are:

1. The LXX of Gen 1:27, found here:

καὶ ἐποίησεν (3rd person singular) ὁ θεὸς (singular) τὸν ἄνθρωπον, κατ᾿ εἰκόνα θεοῦ (singular) ἐποίησεν (3rd person singular) αὐτόν, ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ ἐποίησεν (3rd person singular) αὐτούς.

2. And, perhaps more importantly, Jesus' own commentary regarding the creation account of man and woman, in Mat 19:4, here:

ὁ δὲ ἀποκριθεὶς εἶπεν Οὐκ ἀνέγνωτε ὅτι ὁ κτίσας (singular) ἀπ' ἀρχῆς ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ ἐποίησεν (3rd person singular) αὐτοὺς

3. As well as Mar 10:6, here:

ἀπὸ δὲ ἀρχῆς κτίσεως ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ ἐποίησεν (3rd person singular) αὐτούς·

There is really no reason to dogmatically assert that the Hebrew term "אֱלֹהִים" must be understood as plural persons with respect to the creation account of Genesis 1. If plural persons were the only acceptable interpretation, the LXX and NT Greek texts would use the plural form of the nouns and verbs describing the event. They don't.

Regarding the doctrines associated with Trinitarianism, Unitarianism or Judaism regarding creation: An option not discussed, and one that I believe has merit is Oneness Theology. Here is a primer for those unfamiliar with it:

http://www.pentecostalsofdadeville.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/03/the-oneness-of-god.pdf

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Three witnesses would argue against the "Plural Persons" Genesis creation account. Here they are:

1. The LXX of Gen 1:27, found here:

καὶ ἐποίησεν (3rd person singular) ὁ θεὸς (singular) τὸν ἄνθρωπον, κατ᾿ εἰκόνα θεοῦ (singular) ἐποίησεν (3rd person singular) αὐτόν, ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ ἐποίησεν (3rd person singular) αὐτούς.

2. And, perhaps more importantly, Jesus' own commentary regarding the creation account of man and woman, in Mat 19:4, here:

ὁ δὲ ἀποκριθεὶς εἶπεν Οὐκ ἀνέγνωτε ὅτι ὁ κτίσας (singular) ἀπ' ἀρχῆς ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ ἐποίησεν (3rd person singular) αὐτοὺς

3. As well as Mar 10:6, here:

ἀπὸ δὲ ἀρχῆς κτίσεως ἄρσεν καὶ θῆλυ ἐποίησεν (3rd person singular) αὐτούς·

There is really no reason to dogmatically assert that the Hebrew term "אֱלֹהִים" must be understood as plural persons with respect to the creation account of Genesis 1. If plural persons were the only acceptable interpretation, the LXX and NT Greek texts would use the plural form of the nouns and verbs describing the event. They don't.

Regarding the doctrines associated with Trinitarianism, Unitarianism or Judaism regarding creation: An option not discussed, and one that I believe has merit is Oneness Theology. Here is a primer for those unfamiliar with it:

http://www.pentecostalsofdadeville.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/03/the-oneness-of-god.pdf

you are well wrong in what you say. You have completely ignored the fact, that in the OT, God is called CREATORS and MAKERS, in the PLURAL. explain this

 

[TahitiRun]

you are well wrong in what you say. You have completely ignored the fact, that in the OT, God is called CREATORS and MAKERS, in the PLURAL. explain this

There is an explanation. It's found in the Gen 2:7 creation account of man. Man (singular person) consists of three (plural) distinct elements: Body, soul and spirit (Gen 2:7 with 1Th 5:23).

The singular person (man) was created in the image of God. That singular person (or compound if you will) has three elements, not three persons, but rather plural elements that make up the singular compound: Man.

Another example would be Solomon's temple design. The temple being a singular temple (compound), having three distinct elements that make up the compound: Those elements consisting of the Outer Court, the Holy Place and the Holy of Holies. Not three temples, but rather one temple having three distinct elements that are arranged and used for three distinct purposes.

In some ways the temple design also reflects the creation of man in the image of God: Outer court (body), Holy Place (soul) and the Holy of Holies (spirit).

The plural noun "אלהים" does not have to mean "Plural Persons". No more so than the terms body, soul and spirit are three persons in man, or that the outer court, holy place and holy of holies are three temples.

Now it's your turn to respond to the LXX in Gen 1:27 and Jesus' commentary in Matthew 19:4 and Mark 10:6.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

There is an explanation. It's found in the Gen 2:7 creation account of man. Man (singular person) consists of three (plural) distinct elements: Body, soul and spirit (Gen 2:7 with 1Th 5:23).

The singular person (man) was created in the image of God. That singular person (or compound if you will) has three elements, not three persons, but rather plural elements that make up the singular compound: Man.

Another example would be Solomon's temple design. The temple being a singular temple (compound), having three distinct elements that make up the compound: Those elements consisting of the Outer Court, the Holy Place and the Holy of Holies. Not three temples, but rather one temple having three distinct elements that are arranged and used for three distinct purposes.

In some ways the temple design also reflects the creation of man in the image of God: Outer court (body), Holy Place (soul) and the Holy of Holies (spirit).

The plural noun "אלהים" does not have to mean "Plural Persons". No more so than the terms body, soul and spirit are three persons in man, or that the outer court, holy place and holy of holies are three temples.

Now it's your turn to respond to the LXX in Gen 1:27 and Jesus' commentary in Matthew 19:4 and Mark 10:6.

you have still FAILED to show why we have in the Bible CREATORS and MAKERS, IF God is meant to be One Person? You cannot, because the Bible is True!

 

[TahitiRun]

you have still FAILED to show why we have in the Bible CREATORS and MAKERS, IF God is meant to be One Person? You cannot, because the Bible is True!

LOL...you've simply failed to believe what I presented and even what Jesus Himself said as recorded under direct inspiration of the Holy Spirit by not one, but two additional witnesses: Matthew and Mark.

Mat 18:16 But if he will not hear thee, then take with thee one or two more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.

 

[dev553344]

˒ĕlōhı̂m: Plural Persons, or Majesty?

There is God the Father, Jesus the Christ his Son, and The Holy Ghost. Jesus's spirit is in the Holy Ghost of God. I can testify that there are at least two Gods, the Father and the Son, I still don't really understand the Holy Ghost, But I think it is the Father's spirit. But I could be wrong. But we call it the Trinity. The three parts of God, The Father the Son and the Holy Ghost.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

There is God the Father, Jesus the Christ his Son, and The Holy Ghost. Jesus's spirit is in the Holy Ghost of God. I can testify that there are at least two Gods, the Father and the Son, I still don't really understand the Holy Ghost, But I think it is the Father's spirit. But I could be wrong. But we call it the Trinity. The three parts of God, The Father the Son and the Holy Ghost.

Jesus Christ is YHWH and ELOHIM

1. Matthew 3:3

"For this is he that was spoken of by the prophet Esaias, saying, The voice of one crying in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of the Lord, make his paths straight"

Which is a direct quote from Isaiah 40:3, where it is Yahweh Who is Coming

"The voice of him that crieth in the wilderness, Prepare ye the way of Yhaweh, make straight in the desert a highway for our Elohim"

2. Acts 2:21

"And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved"

From Joel 2:32

"And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of Yahweh shall be delivered"

3. 1 Corinthians 10:9

"Neither let us tempt Christ, as some of them also tempted, and were destroyed of serpents"

From Numbers 21:6

"And Yhaweh sent fiery serpents among the people, and they bit the people; and much people of Israel died"

4. Philippians 2:10-11

"That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth; And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father."

From Isaiah 45:22-23

"Look unto me, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth: for I am God, and there is none else. I have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, That unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear"

5. Revelation 22:13

" I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last"

From Isaiah 44:6

"Thus saith Yahweh the King of Israel, and his redeemer Yahweh of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God"

Very clear that Jesus Christ is both YHWH and ELOHIM

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

LOL...you've simply failed to believe what I presented and even what Jesus Himself said as recorded under direct inspiration of the Holy Spirit by not one, but two additional witnesses: Matthew and Mark.

Mat 18:16 But if he will not hear thee, then take with thee one or two more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.

now try to refute #15

 

[TahitiRun]

now try to refute #15

Why would I try to refute the Divinity of Christ (Jesus)? I believe all the scriptures that speak/declare that Jesus is God. What I don't find of necessity is believing in the trinitarian concept.

I provided a link to the Oneness of God theology (a doctrine I believe to be more biblical than trinitarianism) that explores this topic in more detail. Here it is, again:

http://www.pentecostalsofdadeville.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/03/the-oneness-of-god.pdf

And no, I don't necessarily hold to other Pentecostal beliefs/doctrines. Do you have any response to my posts #9 and #11? You seem to be dodging them.

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

Why would I try to refute the Divinity of Christ (Jesus)? I believe all the scriptures that speak/declare that Jesus is God. What I don't find of necessity is believing in the trinitarian concept.

I provided a link to the Oneness of God theology (a doctrine I believe to be more biblical than trinitarianism) that explores this topic in more detail. Here it is, again:

http://www.pentecostalsofdadeville.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/03/the-oneness-of-god.pdf

And no, I don't necessarily hold to other Pentecostal beliefs/doctrines. Do you have any response to my posts #9 and #11? You seem to be dodging them.

If you believe that Jesus Christ is God, and the Father is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, then, either you have THREE Gods, or, the Trinity is true. There is no other way. If you have, then lets hear it

 

[TahitiRun]

If you believe that Jesus Christ is God, and the Father is God, and the Holy Spirit is God, then, either you have THREE Gods, or, the Trinity is true. There is no other way. If you have, then lets hear it

I provided a link that responds to all your "what ifs", "what abouts" and "no other ways". If you will, take a moment and read it.

May I ask why you're dodging post #9 and #11?

 

[ByGraceThroughFaith]

I provided a link that responds to all your "what ifs", "what abouts" and "no other ways". If you will, take a moment and read it.

May I ask why you're dodging post #9 and #11?

Oneness Pentecostals are Unitarians, which is RANK HERESY. The Bible DESTROYS this in many passages.