You obviously did nothing to back why MY scriptural quote disagrees with your scriptural quote. And you obviously didn't deal with how Jesus could have SPOKEN the word HELL out of his mouth when that word didn't even exist until 775 AD. There are THREE, 3 Greek words that get translated as HELL in the NT. None of them have the same definition in either Strong's or Young's GREEK DICTIONARY.
KJV MAT 5:22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of HELL fire.
YLT
MAT 5:22 but I - I say to you, that every one who is angry at his brother without cause, shall be in danger of the judgment, and whoever may say to his brother, Empty fellow! shall be in danger of the sanhedrim, and whoever may say, Rebel! shall be in danger of the GEHENNA of the fire.
KJV LUK 10:15 And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted to heaven, shalt be thrust down to HELL.
YLT LUK 10:15* 'And thou, Capernaum, which unto the heaven wast exalted, unto HADES thou shalt be brought down.
KJV 2PE 2:4 For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to HELL, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment;
YLT 2PE 2:4 For if God messengers who sinned did not spare, but with chains of thick gloom, having cast {them} down to TARTARUS, did deliver {them} to judgment, having been reserved,
So, your bible has one word for 3 different HELLS in my YLT. WHY?
The KJV has the word HELL in it 54 times. YOUR newer bible translation has it in there either 12, 13 or 14 times....WHY?
Answer all my questions or don't bother answering at all. Because it appears to me, that it just won't be fruitful.
