StanJ said:
No, that is what YOU are saying. God's word says groans that cannot be worded. You can only groan by making a sound, otherwise it is silence.
http://www.bing.com/search?q=define+groan&qs=DA&pq=define+groan&sc=6-12&sp=1&cvid=7d2a5ad3a73f4d7db2db1a3d462b6d96&FORM=QBLH
groan
[ grōn ]
VERB
verb: groan · third person present: groans · past tense: groaned · past participle: groaned · present participle: groaning
(groan with/under)
be heavily loaded with:
"tables groan with joints of venison"
(groan under/beneath)
be oppressed by:
"families groaning under mortgage increases"
make a deep inarticulate sound in response to pain or despair:
"Marty groaned and pulled the blanket over his head"
synonyms: moan · whimper · cry · call out
(of a thing) make a low creaking or moaning sound when pressure or weight is applied:
"James slumped back into his chair, making it groan and bulge"
synonyms: creak · squeak · grate · rasp
NOUN
noun: groan · plural noun: groans
a deep, inarticulate sound made in pain or despair.
synonyms: moan · cry · whimper
a low creaking or moaning sound made by an object or device under pressure:
"the protesting groan of timbers"
synonyms: creaking · creak · squeak · grating · grinding
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Groans are not silent unless it is written that they are NOT uttered and thus no sound.
Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us
with groanings which cannot be uttered.
Therefore groanings are heard unless used in a sentence or verse that they are not uttered at all.
If you refuse to accept any translation other than the KJV, then you will never know what the Greek is actually conveying.
That's pretty much like saying, "Are you sure God said that in the KJV? Let's check with other Bible versions". Believers need wisdom from the Lord to understand His words in the KJV and stop looking to man to get an easier to read Bible than the KJV because they are still at it ! When are they going to stop and say finally that they have an easier to read Bible? Never is more like it.
In any event, you strive about words but make no point....WHAT is your point?
That your fellow tongue speakers that have been using that reference of Romans 8:26-27 to prove that the Holy Spirit does utter sounds when making His intercessions by Himself are vainly trying to justify that tongues that comes with no interpretation is a prayer language used by the Holy Ghost in praying to God....
and that is not what the Greek texts are saying, and why the KJV has it right.
Romans 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit
itself maketh intercession for us
with groanings which cannot be uttered.
The reason why "itself" was used instead of "Himself" is because His intercessions are unspeakable and unutterable and therefore the Holy Spirit cannot make them known to the Father even though He has His own intercessions for us. This leads to why verse 27 exists as this is how the unspeakable intercessions of the Holy Spirit are made known and that is by Someone Else knowing the mind of the Spirit and that confirms why Himself should not be used in verse 26 when the knowing the mind of the Spirit in giving the intercessions of the Spirit's to the Father
is the means on how the intercessions of the Spirit's are made known.
27 And
he that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the will of God.
The identity of the "he" that knows the mind of the Spirit is the identity of the "he" that searches our hearts.
Hebrews 4:12
For the word of God is quick, and powerful, and sharper than any twoedged sword, piercing even to the dividing asunder of soul and spirit, and of the joints and marrow, and
is a discerner of the thoughts and intents of the heart. 13
Neither is there any creature that is not manifest in his sight: but all things are naked and opened unto the eyes of him with whom we have to do. 14
Seeing then that we have a great high priest, that is passed into the heavens,
Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our profession.
So the point is tongue speakers cannot use Romans 8:26-27 as proof for using tongues as a prayer language. You may not use it, but others have, depending on what Bible version they would use.
Romans 8:26 In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness. We do not know what we ought to pray for, but
the Spirit himself intercedes for us through wordless groans. NIV
That NIV implies that sounds of groans are being made; just not in words.
27 And he who searches our hearts knows the mind of the Spirit, because
the Spirit intercedes for God’s people in accordance with the will of God.
NIV
.
A grammatical error has been committed in the NIV because the "he" that searches our hearts has to be separate from us in searching our hearts and the same "he" that knows the mind of the Spirit, has to be separate from the Spirit in knowing the mind of, and so it cannot conclude that this "he" is "the Spirit" in verse 27. That is a plain grammatical error and no English teacher can be obtuse about that.
So you can see why your fellow tongue speakers are using that reference as "justifying" using tongues as a prayer language and why YOU should only rely on the KJV for the actual meat and meaning of His words to discern good and evil by in these latter days where faith is hard to find.