A reply to "Christians´ reply to Muhammad´s prediction".

[Truth_Teller]

There was this thread added by a Christian poster as reply to the claim that Muslims make of Muhammad´s prediction in Bible:http://www.christianityboard.com/muhammad-...eply-t5280.htmlFirst of all, I would like to appreciate the poster´s efforts and the time he took to write such a long answer. It was glad to see a Christian finally standing up and answering Muslim´s claim.However, it is now the turn of a Muslim to give a proper and fitting reply to his claims as well:

How exactly is Jesus placed higher than Muhammad by being fatherless??? If such arguments were to support any claim then let me remind you (all) that Adam and Eve, the first man and woman ever, had neither a father nor a mother. So does being parentless place both of them higher than all prophets including Jesus??? Stupid point!!!

The claim that Muhammad enforced his rule is a funny one. I know you can dig out various kind of claims from biographies but the only proof things we can give in such arguments are the scriptures. Qur´an openly gives the freedom of religion. Nowhere does it allow any compulsion. Did Moses force his rule??? The Bible clearly states death penalty for an apostate (Deuteronomy 13:6-9, 17:3-5). So, no freedom right there. Bible will be the last book I will open being alone in scary place. It again and again allows death penalty for many acts. You open it and it states everywhere "Must be put to death!!!". I seriously thank God again and again for having blessed with a far better law than the one provided in the Torah. What will Christians now say? Will they come up with the typical lie they always say when put in a hole that 'oh no we don’t have to follow the Old Testament anymore'. That has become quite a famous line now, anyways, I would like the Christian to show me where this rule has been abrogated or told to not be followed. I have not seen it in the New Testament.

Well, if sermon were to be taken as The Law then Muhammad also gave two different Laws to his followers - one is Qur´an, The Revelation from God, and the other being his last sermon. Mate, how are sermons to be taken as the Law??? Even if that was the Law then Jesus was a wonderful man who contradicted in every other word. Didn´t Jesus himself say "Do not think that I [Jesus] have come to abolish the Law (the Old Testament) or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.

1) Moses was killed by God Himself (according to Christians), 2) Jesus was "killed" as a sacrifice (according to Christians), 3) Muhammad died truly a natural death.A jewish woman did give him poison "but he died four years later". So it doesn´t help the cause anymore.Let us discuss the poisoning of Jesus. According to the Gospels, Jesus was given a sponge full of vinegar, and immediately died seconds later. Now there was set a vessel full of vinegar: and they filled a spunge with vinegar, and put it upon hyssop, and put it to his mouth. When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost. (John 19:29-30)This proves Jesus was poisoned, the vinegar is supposed to have stimulating effects, yet it killed Jesus instantly!So clearly, only Muhammad died a natural death. An honorable death of which he had come to know of before.Thing to note is that even if the Prophet did die from the poison right away then that does not disprove his Prophethood since the Jews had a history of killing Prophets…

Ishaaq ibn ‘Abd-Allah[/i] that when the mother of the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) gave him to the Sa’di woman who breastfed him, she said to her, “Keep him safe,” and she told her what she had seen. Haleemah al-Sa’diyyah passed by some Jews and said, “Will you not tell me about this son of mine? I conceived him in such and such a manner, and I gave birth to him in such and such a manner, and I saw such and such,” and she repeated what his mother had told her. They said to one another, “Kill him!” They asked her, “Is he an orphan?” She said, “No, this is his father and I am his mother.” They said, “If he had been an orphan we would have killed him.” Haleemah (his wet nurse) took him and said, “I nearly lost that which had been entrusted to me.”

In reality, this is what sets apart Muhammad from all other prophets. He truly only delivered the words of God.

Qur´an[/i] Muhammad performed none (Sura 24: 13) (29: 50).

Please bring the miracles the miracle that Jesus did from the Qur´an. And secondly, Qur´an was the last of holy scriptures and hence it contained stories of the past prophets and their lives. It wasn´t a biography of Muhammad but The Word of God.

Allah[/i]

Any proof to back that statement? It´s quite a funny claim to me...... Someone teaches all his life that there is only One Power, Allah, on a day allows worship of three doughters of The very same Allah????? Why did Jesus need to abvocate foreign gods when he himself claimed to be one, absolutely going against the teachings of Judaism???

Thanks for proving my point again. The Holy Qur´an specifically claimed to be the word from God and it contains no word of a human-being. It truly sets Qur´an apart from all heavenly books which are corrupted ones.

Qur´an[/i] by the angel Gabriel (Sura 17:73 ? 75, Sura 22:52-53, Sura 52: 19-26 Bukhari 6: 385; Tabari vol 6: 107).

Whatever message We abrogate or cause to be forgotten, We bring one better than it or one like it. Knowest thou not that Allah is Possessor of power over all things? (Holy Qur´an: Chapter 2, Verse 106). So O people, listen to the commands of God. Do not twist them, but continuously obey them. It is only God’s prerogative to abrogate any command or cause it to be forgotten.In this verse, Allah, Most High, has addressed the Jews and stated, (even though you are averse to any revelation being vouchsafed to another people), it is necessary to abrogate some of the commands previously revealed to you which were for the needs of a different age and country. Some of these commands you have already forgotten. There is no harm in this (new revelation) for in place of the abrogated commands, better ones would be revealed, and as for the forgotten commands similar ones would be granted.It may be noted that some Divine Laws are valid for all times and places. If any such law is forgotten then God reveals a similar law. Other laws need to be revised with the progress of mankind. These laws are abrogated and replaced with better ones. A perfect law demands a fully capable society. Take the example of a child and his changing needs with respect to clothing, food and rules. As he grows older, some rules remain the same and other rules are replaced with better ones. The time of the Holy Prophet (peace be upon him) was the age at which humanity had progressed to the stage that a complete guidance was needed. Jesus Christ had also indicated this, when he had stated "I have many things to tell you but you cannot bear them now. When the Comforter will come, he will teach you these things" – (Refers to the Holy Bible, John, 14:25).These words refer to Khair am minha (better one – Holy Qur´an 2:106 -- i.e., the abrogation of a message by a better one). The word 'Mislaha' (like it – Holy Qur´an 2:106 -- i.e., message like one forgotten) also refer to the prophecy of the Prophet Moses in Deuteronomy 18:18, that is the teaching of the Holy Prophet would be like that of Moses.is completely wrong to interpret this verse (Qur´an 2:106) to mean that some verses of the Qur´an have been abrogated. Furthermore, the difference of opinion in this regard is so great that some hold that seven hundred verses have been abrogated, while others hold that only five verses were abrogated. Is it then not a matter of concern for the ordinary Muslim as to how he should regard the balance six hundred and ninety five verses? The cause of these differences is nothing other than that, when somebody was unable to reconcile any one verse of the Qur´an with another, he would declare one of these two verses to be abrogated.

Why take such a shield??? Okay, let´s for a moment assume that verses were Satanic ones. Who did it??? Satan, right? Now, doesn´t Satan always go against the Good of God??? Means Muhammad was The Righteous and The Messenger of God against whom Satan propogated. What´s the matter when you yourself agree that Angel Gabriel abrogated later on??? At least now remove the fold from your eyes.

In the Gospel of St. John, chapter 15 we find Prophet Jesus (PBUH) giving the tidings of the Comforter or the Paraclete to come after him. He tells his disciples:"Nevertheless I will tell you the truth; it is expedient for you that I go away; for if I go not away the Comforter will not come unto you… He will guide you unto all the truth… He shall glorify me for he shall received of mine."There is an interesting point worth noting here. The word Comforter as found in the English translation of the Christian Bible is actually a translation of the Greek word Paracletos which in turn is a translation of the word 'Hmda' from the Aramaic language which Jesus used to speak. And rendered into Arabic 'Hmda' means 'Ahmad' the name which the Holy Qur’an has preserved in ayah 61 of Surah Saff in its quotation of Prophet Jesus’ prophecy of Prophet Mohammad (blessings of Allah be upon him and his progeny). Now listen:"And when Jesus, son of Mary, said: O children of Israel, surely I am the Messenger of Allah to you verifying that which is before me of the Torah and giving the good news of the Prophet to come after me whose name is Ahmad."God calls us 'Ashraful-Mahlookat' (best of the creatures) and it is upto us to see the Hints given by God in many of His scriptures. God not only leaves the Hints to see whether we pick it or not but also to see our intelligence. I think Hints and Predictions given above are enough for an intelligent man to understand who they are referring to but not for those who are waiting for God to give proper address, telephone number, name of parents, exact name of The Last Messenger of his to come.You have been taking shield of your useless claim again and again that "Time is coming Jesus will comeback" etc load of rubbish. But my friend to disappoint you I may assure you of the fact that Jesus Christ has died and is buried in Kashmir, Srinagar under the name of "Yuz Asaf". Having survived the crucifiction he travelled all the way to India and lived a peaceful life there before finally handing over his spirit to God. Even scientically Christianity is the most corrupt of all religion which has claimed ascension of someone who is dead and is buried peacefully.Following video links might remove the fold from your eyes:http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9DXCZFRsyl8&feature=relatedhttp://www.youtube.com/watch?v=T340DUSq9SY&feature=relatedhttp://www.youtube.com/watch?v=8cy8M4VzU-Y&feature=related

 

[Alpha and Omega]

(Truth_Teller;53009)
The claim that Muhammad enforced his rule is a funny one. I know you can dig out various kind of claims from biographies but the only proof things we can give in such arguments are the scriptures. Qur´an openly gives the freedom of religion. Nowhere does it allow any compulsion. Did Moses force his rule??? The Bible clearly states death penalty for an apostate (Deuteronomy 13:6-9, 17:3-5). So, no freedom right there. Bible will be the last book I will open being alone in scary place. It again and again allows death penalty for many acts. You open it and it states everywhere "Must be put to death!!!". I seriously thank God again and again for having blessed with a far better law than the one provided in the Torah. What will Christians now say? Will they come up with the typical lie they always say when put in a hole that 'oh no we don’t have to follow the Old Testament anymore'. That has become quite a famous line now, anyways, I would like the Christian to show me where this rule has been abrogated or told to not be followed. I have not seen it in the New Testament.
The rules for moral and righteous living have not been undone and they are what still apply. The procedural laws and punishments have all been fulfilled by Christ.So while its still wrong to talk back to your parents, convince others to follow false gods etc, we don't stone you for it because though you deserve it Jesus took your punishment and mine. Other parts of the Old Testament give a good history that helps lead up to the NT. It also has lessons on faith which are very valuable.(Truth_Teller;53009)
Please bring the miracles the miracle that Jesus did from the Qur´an. And secondly, Qur´an was the last of holy scriptures and hence it contained stories of the past prophets and their lives. It wasn´t a biography of Muhammad but The Word of God.
(Truth_Teller;53009)
Thanks for proving my point again. The Holy Qur´an specifically claimed to be the word from God and it contains no word of a human-being. It truly sets Qur´an apart from all heavenly books which are corrupted ones.
Please see what the Qur'an says:Sura 6:115 The words of thy Lord are perfect in truth and in justice; NONE can change His words: For He is the one who heareth and knoweth all.Sura 6:34 There is none that can alter the words of Allah. Already hast thou received some account of those messengers. Sura 10:64 There is no changing the words of God; that is the supreme triumph. Further in Sura 3:3 and others, the Qur'an confirms that Torah, Zabur and Injil are words of God. Do you believe the Qur'an is true in its statement that NOBODY can change the words of God? Something to ponder for you.Every time you dig out an "error" in the [Torah/Gospel], you confirm that the Qur'an is WRONG and prove that the very foundation of your religion is faulty. The Qur'an states this at least three times to make sure you don't overlook it. If you think the Bible is wrong BECAUSE of some corruption (contradictions) you have piled up, then think about the contradiction between the Qur'an and your confidence in this "proof". In my opinion this is a serious logical problem for Islam.(Truth_Teller;53009)
Any proof to back that statement? It´s quite a funny claim to me...... Someone teaches all his life that there is only One Power, Allah, on a day allows worship of three doughters of The very same Allah????? Why did Jesus need to abvocate foreign gods when he himself claimed to be one, absolutely going against the teachings of Judaism???
Which gods did Jesus advocate exactly?Tell me how do you know that you are going to heaven?

 

[Truth_Teller]

(Alpha and Omega;54342)
Please see what the Qur'an says:Sura 6:115 The words of thy Lord are perfect in truth and in justice; NONE can change His words: For He is the one who heareth and knoweth all.Sura 6:34 There is none that can alter the words of Allah. Already hast thou received some account of those messengers. Sura 10:64 There is no changing the words of God; that is the supreme triumph. Further in Sura 3:3 and others, the Qur'an confirms that Torah, Zabur and Injil are words of God. Do you believe the Qur'an is true in its statement that NOBODY can change the words of God? Something to ponder for you.Every time you dig out an "error" in the [Torah/Gospel], you confirm that the Qur'an is WRONG and prove that the very foundation of your religion is faulty. The Qur'an states this at least three times to make sure you don't overlook it. If you think the Bible is wrong BECAUSE of some corruption (contradictions) you have piled up, then think about the contradiction between the Qur'an and your confidence in this "proof". In my opinion this is a serious logical problem for Islam.
It is an article of faith for every Muslim to believe in all the Prophets of God and all revelations of God. However, the present day Bible has the first five books of the Old Testament attributed to Moses and the Psalms attributed to David. Moreover the New Testament or the four Gospels of the New Testament are not the Taurah, the Zaboor or the Injeel, which the Qur’an refers to. These books of the present day Bible may partly contain the word of God but these books are certainly not the exact, accurate and complete revelations given to the prophets.The Qur’an presents all the different prophets of Allah as belonging to one single brotherhood; all had a similar prophetic mission and the same basic message. Because of this, the fundamental teachings of the major faiths cannot be contradictory, even if there has been a considerable passage of time between the different prophetic missions, because the source of these missions was one: Almighty God, Allah. This is why the Qur’an says that the differences which exist between various religions are not the responsibility of the prophets, but of the followers of these prophets who forgot part of what they had been taught, and furthermore, misinterpreted and changed the scriptures. The Qur’an cannot therefore be seen as a scripture which competes with the teachings of Moses, Jesus and the other prophets. On the contrary, it confirms, completes and perfects the messages that they brought to their people. Another name for the Qur’an is the ‘The Furqan’ which means the criteria to judge the right from the wrong, and it is on the basis of the Qur’an that we can decipher which part of the previous scriptures can be considered to be the word of God.The Quran speaks about what is TRUE in the previous scriptures, but it also guards them, by clarifying the message that has been corrupted.(Alpha and Omega;54342)
Which gods did Jesus advocate exactly?Tell me how do you know that you are going to heaven?
I for once never claimed that Jesus advocated foreign gods.By the way, what does the latter part ean about "Heavens" etc:shepard:???

 

[Alpha and Omega]

(Truth_Teller;54429)
By the way, what does the latter part ean about "Heavens" etc:shepard:???
Well I am just asking a question. How do you know that you are going to heaven or paradise or whatever you would like to call it.

 

[Truth_Teller]

(Alpha and Omega;54482)
Well I am just asking a question. How do you know that you are going to heaven or paradise or whatever you would like to call it.
When did I claim that I know it:shepard:?

 

[yaqub]

(Truth_Teller;54429)
It is an article of faith for every Muslim to believe in all the Prophets of God and all revelations of God. However, the present day Bible has the first five books of the Old Testament attributed to Moses and the Psalms attributed to David. Moreover the New Testament or the four Gospels of the New Testament are not the Taurah, the Zaboor or the Injeel, which the Qur’an refers to. These books of the present day Bible may partly contain the word of God but these books are certainly not the exact, accurate and complete revelations given to the prophets.
It is easy to make a claim, but you need to provide the evidence. What evidence is there? Many times, the Qur'an tells the Jews and Christians to refer to the scriptures they possess.It is the claim of Muslims that the Bible has been changed and corrupted. From the other posts, you asked others to show from the Qur'an only, so I also ask that you show that the Qur'an says that the Bible has been changed in text.

 

[Alpha and Omega]

(Truth_Teller;54498)
When did I claim that I know it:shepard:?
You didn't I was just curious how a Muslim would know if he is going to heaven, paradise etc.

 

[Truth_Teller]

(Alpha and Omega;54535)
You didn't I was just curious how a Muslim would know if he is going to heaven, paradise etc.
Nobody knows it. Allah is The Judge and He deals justly. Though, if you do good deeds all your life then your inner feeling and self-believe will tell you that your rightousness is backed by The Almighty Power.

 

[Alpha and Omega]

(Truth_Teller;54429)
Because of this, the fundamental teachings of the major faiths cannot be contradictory, even if there has been a considerable passage of time between the different prophetic missions, because the source of these missions was one: Almighty God, Allah.
But they are contradictory. All religions contradict each other. However I have been wanting to ask who wrote the Qua'ran? Was it inspired by Allah or was it just written by Muhammed?

 

[Truth_Teller]

(Alpha and Omega;54635)
But they are contradictory. All religions contradict each other. However I have been wanting to ask who wrote the Qua'ran? Was it inspired by Allah or was it just written by Muhammed?
You don´t need to ask that. You very well know what the answer is.

 

[Alpha and Omega]

(Truth_Teller;54645)
You don´t need to ask that. You very well know what the answer is.
Well I am confused. Reading some of it, it seems like it is not from Allah but Mohammed. (Koran 1:1-7)In the name of the Merciful and Compassionate God.Praise belongs to God, The Lord of the worlds, the merciful, thecompassionate, the ruler of the day of the day of judgement! Thee we serve and Thee we ask for aid. Guide us in the right path,the path of those Thou art gracious to; not to those Thou art wroth with, nor of those who err.Someone need not be a rocket-scientist to comprehend that these words are clearly addressed to God, in the form of a prayer. They are Mohammed's words of parise to God, asking for God's help and guidance.(Koran 113:1)I take refuge with the Lord of the Dawn.One can clearly see, its Mohammed and NOT GOD HIMSELF who is seeking refuge in God. (Koran 84:16-19)I swear by the afterglow of sunset, and by the night,and by the moon when she is at the full.Once again it is Mohammed and NOT God. He is unable to disguise his pagan heritage. He swears again in the name of the Sun and Moon, both of which were considered as holy deities by pre-Islamic Arabs. Furthermore, isn't it interesting that a crescent moon is always the symbol on mosques? Is this not a form of moon worship?

 

[Truth_Teller]

(Alpha and Omega;54696)
Well I am confused. Reading some of it, it seems like it is not from Allah but Mohammed. (Koran 1:1-7)In the name of the Merciful and Compassionate God.Praise belongs to God, The Lord of the worlds, the merciful, thecompassionate, the ruler of the day of the day of judgement! Thee we serve and Thee we ask for aid. Guide us in the right path,the path of those Thou art gracious to; not to those Thou art wroth with, nor of those who err.Someone need not be a rocket-scientist to comprehend that these words are clearly addressed to God, in the form of a prayer. They are Mohammed's words of parise to God, asking for God's help and guidance.(Koran 113:1)I take refuge with the Lord of the Dawn.One can clearly see, its Mohammed and NOT GOD HIMSELF who is seeking refuge in God. (Koran 84:16-19)I swear by the afterglow of sunset, and by the night,and by the moon when she is at the full.Once again it is Mohammed and NOT God. He is unable to disguise his pagan heritage. He swears again in the name of the Sun and Moon, both of which were considered as holy deities by pre-Islamic Arabs. Furthermore, isn't it interesting that a crescent moon is always the symbol on mosques? Is this not a form of moon worship?
thats what happens when people resort to interpreting a matter that they do not understand, nor do they understand the language it was revealed.these "prayers" are prayers that Allah is instructing Muhammad, and from that basis, Muslims to recite in various situations and or in their daily prayers.Allah is telling us 'seek refuge in the Lord of Dawn"and other such prayers. everything, every letter in the quraan is part of the speech of Allah and is not the speech of any creation.In fact, in the Bible Satan speaks in various places are we to assume that those parts of the Bible are not God's words but Satan's? Indeed, it doesn't take a rocket scientist but it does take a little reflectionand a more conclusive proof that the quran is not muhammads word, but God's is the fact that it has been revealed in an interval of 23 years. During this time frame, the collective statements of the prophet Muhammad preserved in the hadeeth show or indicate a variation in emotional tone. That would b the case considering people tried to kill him, he went to several batteles, witness oppression against him and his beloved friends unlike anyone has experienced since He said "the people who are trialed most by Allah are the prophets". So in the sayings and actions of Muhammad during this period, they indicate a emotional tone to it. Yet when one reads the quran in this same time period, one cannot find any cariation of emotional tones at all, it is straight foward in its style. It is not affected by the events of these 23 years except that it addresses the substantive matters that have taken place, an does not argue under emotion.1. firstly, the moon symbol was an innovation added by the ottoman empire 9 centuries after Islam. It was they who incorperated this symbol. for nearly 9 centuries, this symbol was absent from Islam. That is a clear repudiation of is insinuation that Islm worships the moon2. secondlythe moon symbol does not represent that muslims worship the moon. just because someone has a symbol does not mean they worship that symbol. the only indication of a symbol that is worshipped is if a people claim to view that symbol as a part of godhood. Muslims do not view the moon, or any other created thing as an object of worship even if this symbol incorperated by the ottomons is infact a symbol. That means that even after the ottomons brought this ysmbol to Islam, even under this time frame, muslims have not worshipped, nor do they view this moon as a symbol of worship or godhood.There is no moon worship. In fact, the Qur'an is quite explicit about when it says not to worship the sun or the moon and it even uses the word for the motion of worship: prostration.

 

[yaqub]

TruthTeller,Peace be with you. I'm still waiting for your reply. Thanks.(yaqub;54534)
It is easy to make a claim, but you need to provide the evidence. What evidence is there? Many times, the Qur'an tells the Jews and Christians to refer to the scriptures they possess.It is the claim of Muslims that the Bible has been changed and corrupted. From the other posts, you asked others to show from the Qur'an only, so I also ask that you show that the Qur'an says that the Bible has been changed in text.

 

[Truth_Teller]

(yaqub;54534)
It is easy to make a claim, but you need to provide the evidence. What evidence is there? Many times, the Qur'an tells the Jews and Christians to refer to the scriptures they possess.It is the claim of Muslims that the Bible has been changed and corrupted. From the other posts, you asked others to show from the Qur'an only, so I also ask that you show that the Qur'an says that the Bible has been changed in text.
Peace be with you as well.Here are the Verses of The Noble Qur´an which do point out the corruption of the earlier scriptures:"Have ye any hope that they will be true to you when a party of them used to listen to the word of Allah, then used to change it, after they had understood it, knowingly?" - (Qur´an 2:75)."But because of their breach of their covenant, We cursed them, and made their hearts grow hard; they change the words from their (right) places and forget a good part of the message that was sent them, nor wilt thou cease to find them- barring a few - ever bent on (new) deceits: but forgive them, and overlook (their misdeeds): for Allah loveth those who are kind." – (Qur´an 5:13)."From those, too, who call themselves Christians, We did take a covenant, but they forgot a good part of the message that was sent them: so we estranged them, with enmity and hatred between the one and the other, to the Day of Judgment. And soon will Allah show them what it is they have done." – (Qur´an 5:14)."Among the Jews are those who distort words from their [proper] usages and say, “We hear and disobey” and “Hear but be not heard” and “Ra‘ina,” twisting their tongues and defaming the religion. And if they had said [instead], “We hear and obey” and “Wait for us [to understand],” it would have been better for them and more suitable. But Allah has cursed them for their disbelief, so they believe not, except for a few." – (Quran 4:46)."Then woe to those who write the Book with their own hands, and then say: “This is from Allah,” to traffic with it for miserable price! - Woe to them for what their hands do write, and for the gain they make thereby." – (Qur´an 2:79).I think above Verses give us a clear evidence of what the Qur´an says about Bible.

 

[Alpha and Omega]

(Truth_Teller;55193)
I think above Verses give us a clear evidence of what the Qur´an says about Bible.
I do not think it really matters what the Qua'ran says because it really has not authority. When you say that Allah inspired it I cannot really believe that for the following examples.(Koran 7:54)Your guardian-Lord is Allah. Who created the heavens and the earth in SIX Days...(Koran 10:3)Verily your Lord is Allah, who created the heavens and the earth in SIX Days...(Koran 11:7)He it is Who created the heavens and the earth in SIX days...(Koran 25:29)He Who created the heavens And the earth and all that is between, in SIX days... Then we see this (Koran 41:9)Is it that ye Deny Him who created the earth in TWO days?...(Koran 41:10)He set on the (earth). Mountains standing firm,high above it, and bestowed blessings on theearth, and measured therein all things togive them nourishment in due proportion, in FOUR days...(Koran 41:12)So He completed them as seven firmaments in TWO days and... Do the math: 2(for earth) + 4(for nourishment) + 2(for heavens) = 8 NOT 6This implies that Mohammed did not know how to add integers. Furthermore,(Koran 4:11)Allah directs you as regards your children's(Inheritance): to the male a portion equal tothat of two females: if only daughters, two ormore, Their share is two-thirds of the inheritance;if only one, her, share is a half.For parents, a sixth share of the inheritance toeach, if the deceased left children; if nochildren, and the parents are the heirs, themother has a third; if the deceased left brothersthe mother has a sixth...(Koran 4:12)In what your wives leave, your share is a half,if they leave no child; but if they leave a child,ye get a fourth; after payment of legacies anddebts. In what ye leave, their share is a fourth,If ye leave no child; but if ye leave a child, theyget an eighth; after payment.(Koran 4:176)...If it is a man that dies, leaving a sisterbut no child, she shall have half the inheritance:If a woman dies and leaves no child, her brothertakes her inheritance: If there are two sisters,they shall have two-thirds of the inheritance.If there are brothers and sisters, the male takestwice the share of the female.Let us suppose that a man dies and leaves behind three daughters, two parents and his wife. According to the verses stated above the three daughters together will receive 2/3 of the share, the parents will receive 1/3 of the share and the wife will receive 1/8 of the share.Do the math once again: 2/3 + 1/3 + 1/8 = 9/8 = 1.125. The distribution of the property adds up to more than the available property! How can this distribution be possible? Once again Mohammed displays his inability to add. Well, if a person can't add integers then it is unprobable that he would know how to add fractions.Another example: A man dies and leaves behind his mother, his wife and two sisters. According to what Mohammed has stated in Koran 4:11-12 and 4:176 the mother will receive 1/3 of the property, the wife will receive 1/4 of the property and the sisters will receive 2/3 of the property.Let us add up the fractions again: 1/3 + 2/3 + 1/4 = 5/4 = 1.25 and once again it adds up to more than the available property.

 

[yaqub]

TruthTeller,Peace to you,(Truth_Teller;55193)
Peace be with you as well.Here are the Verses of The Noble Qur´an which do point out the corruption of the earlier scriptures:"Have ye any hope that they will be true to you when a party of them used to listen to the word of Allah, then used to change it, after they had understood it, knowingly?" - (Qur´an 2:75).
Notice that the verse has to do changing what one listens to. It doesn't change the written text of the Bible.
"But because of their breach of their covenant, We cursed them, and made their hearts grow hard; they change the words from their (right) places and forget a good part of the message that was sent them, nor wilt thou cease to find them- barring a few - ever bent on (new) deceits: but forgive them, and overlook (their misdeeds): for Allah loveth those who are kind." – (Qur´an 5:13).
Read any commentary (tafsir) and you will see that it has to do with reading, and forgetting what was read. It has nothing to do with the written text.
"From those, too, who call themselves Christians, We did take a covenant, but they forgot a good part of the message that was sent them: so we estranged them, with enmity and hatred between the one and the other, to the Day of Judgment. And soon will Allah show them what it is they have done." – (Qur´an 5:14).
Forgetting is not the same as corruption.
"Among the Jews are those who distort words from their [proper] usages and say, “We hear and disobey” and “Hear but be not heard” and “Ra‘ina,” twisting their tongues and defaming the religion. And if they had said [instead], “We hear and obey” and “Wait for us [to understand],” it would have been better for them and more suitable. But Allah has cursed them for their disbelief, so they believe not, except for a few." – (Quran 4:46).
As you can see, it has to do with the twisting of the tongue. It has nothing to do with the written text.
"Then woe to those who write the Book with their own hands, and then say: “This is from Allah,” to traffic with it for miserable price! - Woe to them for what their hands do write, and for the gain they make thereby." – (Qur´an 2:79).
Ah... the strongest one perhaps. But, these refers to targums that were written for selling (gain). It does not say that the original text is lost or corrupted.
I think above Verses give us a clear evidence of what the Qur´an says about Bible.
Nay, these verses tell us what the Qur'an accused the Jews and/or Christians (they are not uniformly addressed in the given verses. Some refer to Jews only, for example) of doing during reading of the Bible.All the verses you have given have nothing to do with the underlying text, except for the targums which are not scripture at all. Instead, they refer to "dislocation", mispronunciation, etc. The classical scholars have written much about these. The verses said nothing about changing the written text.The truthful thing is that Muslim scholars tell of two kinds of tahrif (corruption) of the Bible: tahrif-i-lafzi and tahrif-i-manawi. The former refers to the corruption in the underlying text, whereas, the latter refers to the corruption through meaning (through mispronunciation, misinterpretation, etc). The truthful thing is also that classical Muslim scholars believe that only the second distortion is true, and there is no change to the underlying text. It is only centuries later that later scholars started giving this new theory. Muslim theologians as late as al-Ghazali (d. 1111) believe that there is no corruption in the text, only in meaning only.

 

[Truth_Teller]

(Alpha and Omega;55222)
I do not think it really matters what the Qua'ran says because it really has not authority. When you say that Allah inspired it I cannot really believe that for the following examples.(Koran 7:54)Your guardian-Lord is Allah. Who created the heavens and the earth in SIX Days...(Koran 10:3)Verily your Lord is Allah, who created the heavens and the earth in SIX Days...(Koran 11:7)He it is Who created the heavens and the earth in SIX days...(Koran 25:29)He Who created the heavens And the earth and all that is between, in SIX days... Then we see this (Koran 41:9)Is it that ye Deny Him who created the earth in TWO days?...(Koran 41:10)He set on the (earth). Mountains standing firm,high above it, and bestowed blessings on theearth, and measured therein all things togive them nourishment in due proportion, in FOUR days...(Koran 41:12)So He completed them as seven firmaments in TWO days and... Do the math: 2(for earth) + 4(for nourishment) + 2(for heavens) = 8 NOT 6
My Response: Let us look at Ayah (verse) 7:54 "Your Guardian-Lord Is Allah, Who created the heavens and the earth in six days, then He established Himself on the Throne (of authority): He draweth the night as a veil O'er the day, each seeking the other in rapid succession: He created the sun, the moon, and the stars, (all) governed by laws under His command. Is it not His to create and to govern? Blessed be Allah, the Cherisher and Sustainer of the worlds !" Let us look at Ayah (verse) 10:3 "Verily your Lord is Allah, Who created the heavens and the earth in six days, then He established Himself on the Throne (of authority), regulating and governing all things. No intercessor (can plead with Him) except after His leave (Hath been obtained). This is Allah your Lord; Him therefore Serve ye: will ye not recieve admonition?" Let us look at Ayah (verse) 11:7 "He (Allah) it is Who created the heavens and the earth in six days and His Throne was over the waters that He mighty try you, which of you is best in conduct. but if thou wert to say to them, 'ye shall indeed be raised up after death,' the unbelievers would be sure to say, 'this is nothing but obvious sorcery!'" Let us look at Ayah (verse) 25:59 "He Who created the heavens and the earth and all that is between, in six days, and is firmly established on the Throne (of authority): Allah, Most Gracious: Ask thou, then, about Him of any acquainted (with such things)." Let us look at Ayah (verse) 32:4 "It is Allah Who has Created the heavens and the earth, and all between them, in six days, then He established Himself on the Throne (of authority); ye have none, besides Him, to protect or intercede (for you): Will ye not then recieve admonition?" Let us look at Ayat (verses) 41:9-12 "(verse 9) Say: Is it that ye Deny Him (Allah) Who created the earth in two days? And do ye join equals with Him? He is the Lord of (all) the worlds. (verse 10) He set on the (earth) mountains standing firm, high above it, and bestowed blessings on the earth, and measured therein all things to give them nourishment in due proportion, in four days, in accordance with (the needs of) those who seek (sustenance). (verse 11) Moreover, He Comprehended in His design the sky, and it had been (as) smoke: He said to it and to the earth: 'Come ye together, Willingly or unwillingly.' They said: 'We do come (together), in willing obedience.' (verse 12) So He completed them as seven firmaments in two days and He assigned to each heaven its duty and command. And We (Allah) adorned the lower heaven with lights, and (provided it) with guard. Such is the Decree of (Him) The Exalted in Might, Full of Knowledge." There is no contradiction in the Noble Verses above.In the above Holy Verses (7:54, 10:3, 11:7, 32:4, and 25:59) we see that Allah Almighty clearly states that He created the universe in six days. Holy Verses (41:9-12) describe the primal creation of our physical earth and the physical heavens around us. If we count the two days mentioned in (41:9), the four days, mentioned in (41:10), and the two days mentioned in (41:12), we get a total of eight days. However, the four days in (41:10) include the two days in (41:9), because the processes described in (41:9-10) form one series. In the one case it is the creation of the formless matter of the earth; and in the other case it is the gradual evolution of the form of the earth, its mountains and seas, and its animal and vegetable life, with the "nourishment in due proportion, (41:10)" proper to each. To further understand the complexity of the creation of the earth, let us look at Ayat (verses) 15:19-20 "And the earth We (Allah) have spread out (Like a carpet); set thereon mountains firm and immovable; and produced therein all kinds of things in due balance. And We (Allah) have provided therein means of subsistence- for you and for those for whose sustenance ye are not responsible." Majesty, order, beauty, and harmony are shown in all Allah's Creation, but especially in the heavens. Coming nearer to man, Allah's care for man and His goodness are shown (besides His other qualities) in His creation of the earth. In highly poetical language, the earth is described as spread out like a carpet, on which the eternal hills act as weights to keep it steady. Let us also look at Ayah (verse) 13:3 "And it is He (Allah) Who spread out the earth, and set thereon mountains, standing firm, and (flowing) rivers: and fruit of every kind He (Allah) made in pairs, two and two: He draweth the night as a veil O'er the day. Behold, verily in these things are Signs for those who consider!" Let us also look at Ayah (verse) 16:15 "And He (Allah) has set up on the earth mountains standing firm, lest it should shake with you; and rivers and roads; that ye may guide yourselves," In Holy Verses (15:19-20, 13:3, and 16:15) we see that Allah Almighty took special care in planet earth to provide all the necessary means for us to be able to survive. This shows that the four days in (41:10) include the two days in (41:9), because the processes described in (41:9-10) form one series. Note: (41:9) talks about the creation of earth. (41:10, 13:3, 15:19-20, 13:3, and 16:15) talk about the gradual improvment and gifts from Allah Almighty of earth for us. The creation of earth without its complexity took two days, and the wonderful creations and gifts that Allah Almighty provided for us on earth took another two days. (Alpha and Omega;55222)
This implies that Mohammed did not know how to add integers.
Or maybe, that non-Muslims don´t know how to understand, is it???(Alpha and Omega;55222)
Furthermore,(Koran 4:11)Allah directs you as regards your children's(Inheritance): to the male a portion equal tothat of two females: if only daughters, two ormore, Their share is two-thirds of the inheritance;if only one, her, share is a half.For parents, a sixth share of the inheritance toeach, if the deceased left children; if nochildren, and the parents are the heirs, themother has a third; if the deceased left brothersthe mother has a sixth...(Koran 4:12)In what your wives leave, your share is a half,if they leave no child; but if they leave a child,ye get a fourth; after payment of legacies anddebts. In what ye leave, their share is a fourth,If ye leave no child; but if ye leave a child, theyget an eighth; after payment.(Koran 4:176)...If it is a man that dies, leaving a sisterbut no child, she shall have half the inheritance:If a woman dies and leaves no child, her brothertakes her inheritance: If there are two sisters,they shall have two-thirds of the inheritance.If there are brothers and sisters, the male takestwice the share of the female.Let us suppose that a man dies and leaves behind three daughters, two parents and his wife. According to the verses stated above the three daughters together will receive 2/3 of the share, the parents will receive 1/3 of the share and the wife will receive 1/8 of the share.Do the math once again: 2/3 + 1/3 + 1/8 = 9/8 = 1.125. The distribution of the property adds up to more than the available property! How can this distribution be possible? Once again Mohammed displays his inability to add. Well, if a person can't add integers then it is unprobable that he would know how to add fractions.Another example: A man dies and leaves behind his mother, his wife and two sisters. According to what Mohammed has stated in Koran 4:11-12 and 4:176 the mother will receive 1/3 of the property, the wife will receive 1/4 of the property and the sisters will receive 2/3 of the property.Let us add up the fractions again: 1/3 + 2/3 + 1/4 = 5/4 = 1.25 and once again it adds up to more than the available property.
Response:(verses) 4:11-12 "Allah (thus) directs you as regards your children's (Inheritance): to the male, a portion equal to that of two females: if only daughters, two or more, their share is two-thirds of inheritance; if only one, her share is a half. For parents, a sixth share of the inheritance to each, if the deceased left children; if no children, and the parents are the (only) heirs, the mother has a third; if the deceased left brothers (or sisters) the mother has a sixth. (The distribution in all cases Is) after the payment of legacies and debts. Ye know not whether Your parents or your children are nearest to you in benefit. These are settled portions ordained by Allah; and Allah is All-knowing, All-Wise. In what your wives leave, your share is a half, if they leave no child; but if they leave a child, ye get a fourth; after payment of legacies and debts. In what ye leave, their share is a fourth, if ye leave no child; but if ye leave a child, they get an eighth; after payment of legacies and debts. If the man or woman whose inheritance is in question, has left neither ascendants nor descendants, but has left a brother or a sister, each one of the two gets a sixth; but if more than two, they share ina third; after payment of legacies and debts; so that no loss is caused (to anyone). Thus is it ordained by Allah; and Allah is All-Knowing, Most Forbearing." There is no contradiction in the Noble Verses above.In "as regards your children's (4:11)" The principles of inheritance law are laid down in broad outline in the Quran; the precise details have been worked out on the basis of the Prophet's practice and that of his companions, and by interpretation and analogy. Muslim jurists have collected a vast amount of learning on this subject, and this body of law is enough by itself to form the subject of life-long study. Here we shall deal only with the broad principles to be gathered from the Text, as interpreted by the Jurists. (1) The power of testamentary disposition extends over only one-third of the property; the remaining two-thirds are distributed among heirs as laid down. (2) All distribution takes place after the legacies and debts (including funeral expenses) have first been paid. (3) Legacies cannot be left to any of the heirs included in the scheme of distribution; or it will amount to upsetting the shares and undue preference of one heir to another. (4) Generally, but not always, the male takes a share of double that of a female in his own category. In "if only daughters, two or more, (4:11)"At first sight, the Arabic words seem to mean: "If more than two daughters." But the alternative in the next clause is: "if only one daughter." Logically, therefore, the first clause must mean: "if daughters, two or more." This is the general interpretation, and is confirmed by the supplementary provision in 4:176 at the end of the Ayah (verse), which should be read along this. Let us look at Ayah (verse) 4:176 "They ask thee for a legal decision. Say: Allah directs (thus) about those who leave no descendants or ascendants as heirs. If it is a man that dies, leaving a sister but no child, she shall have half the inheritance: If (such a deceased was) a woman, who left no child, her brother takes her inheritance: if there are two sisters, they shall have two-thirds of the inheritance (between them): if there are brothers and sisters, (they share), the male having twice the share of the female. Thus doth Allah make clear to you (His law), lest Ye err. And Allah hath knowledge of all things." In "If it is a man that dies, (4:176)" This verse supplements the rule of inheritance of the estate of a deceased person who has left as heir neither a descendant nor an ascendant. We shall call such a person A, who may be either a male or a female. In 4:12 (second half), A's case was considered where he had left uterine brothers or sisters. here A's case is considered where he has left brothers and/or sisters by the father's side, whether the mother was the same or not. "Brothers" and "sisters" in this verse must be construed to be such brothers and sisters. A, and "brother" and "sister" being strictly defined as above, we proceed to consider how A's inheritance would be divided. If A left a widow or widower, the widow's or widower's share would first be calculated as in the first half of verse 4:12; if A left no spouse, this calculation would not be necessary. Then if A left a single "sister," she would have a half share, the remaining half (insofar as it, or a part of it, does not fall to a spouse, if any) going to remoter heirs; if a single "brother," he would have the whole (subject to the spouse's right if there is a spouse); if more than one "brother," they divide the whole (subject to, etc.). If A left two or more "sisters," they get between them two-thirds, subject to the spouse's right, if any. If A left a "brother" and "sister", or "brother" and "sister," they divide on the basis that each "brother's" share is twice that of the "sister" (subject to, etc.). In all cases debts, funeral expenses, and legacies (to the amount allowed) have priority. Let us look at "These are settled portions ordained by Allah; (4:11)" The verse deals with the portions allotted to (a) children, and (

parents. The next verse deals with the portions allotted to © husband or wife of the deceased, and (d) collaterals. The children's shares are fixed, but their amount will depend upon what goes to the parents. If both parents are living, and there are also children, both father and mother take a sixth each; if only one parent is living, he or she takes his or her sixth; and the rest goes to the children. If the parents are living, and there is no child or other heir, the mother gets a third (and the father the remaining two-thirds); if there are no children, but there are brothers or sisters (this is interpreted strictly in the plural), the mother has a sixth, and the father apparently the residue, as the father excludes collaterals. This is far from being an exhaustive statement, but it establishes the proposition that children and parents have always some share if they survive, but their shares are affected by the existence and number of heirs in these categories. In "their share is a fourth, (4:12)" The husband takes a half of his deceased wife's property if she leaves no child, the rest going to residuaries; if she leaves a child, the husband gets only a fourth. Following the rule that the female share is generally half the male share, the widow gets a fourth of her deceased husband's property, if he leaves no children, and an eighth if he leaves children. If there are more widows than one, their collective share is a fourth or an eighth as the case may be. In "has left neither ascendants nor descendants, (4:12)" The word in Arabic is KALALAH, which is so construed usually. But it was nowhere defined authoritatively in the lifetime of the Messenger. This was one of the three terms about which Umar (The Prophet's second deciple) wished that the Messenger had defined them in his lifetime, the other two being KHILAFAH, and RIBA (usury). On the accepted definition, we are concerned with the inheritance of a person who has left no descendant or ascendant (however distant), but only collaterals, with or without a widow or widower. If there is a widow or widower surviving, she or he takes the share as already defined, before the collaterals come in. In "but has left a brother or a sister, (4:12)" A "brother or sister" is here interpreted to mean a uterine brother or sister, i.e., a brother or sister by the same mother but not by the same father, as the case of full brothers and sisters or brothers and sisters by the same father but different mothers is understood to be dealt with later, in the last verse of this Ayah (verse). The uterine brother or sister, if only one survives, takes a sixth, if more than one survives, they take a third collectively, and divide among themselves; this on the supposition that there are no descendants or ascendants, however remote. There may, however, be a widow or widower surviving: she or he takes her or his share, as already specified. The shares of collaterals generally are calculated on a complicated system which cannot be described in a brief note. For these, and the rules about residuaries (ASABA) references should be made to special legal treatises. In "after payment of legacies and debts; so that no loss is caused (to anyone). (4:12)" Debts (in which funeral expenses take first rank) and legacies are the first charge on the estate of a deceased person, before distribution takes place. But equity and fair dealing should be observed in all matters, so that no one's interests are prejudiced. Thus funeral expenses should be reasonable; debts must be genuine and not reckless debts; and the shares must be calculated with fairness.Now even that theory is proven wrong. Does The Qur´an now hold some authority over The Bible???

 

[treeoflife]

(Truth_Teller;55193)
Peace be with you as well.Here are the Verses of The Noble Qur´an which do point out the corruption of the earlier scriptures:"Have ye any hope that they will be true to you when a party of them used to listen to the word of Allah, then used to change it, after they had understood it, knowingly?" - (Qur´an 2:75)."But because of their breach of their covenant, We cursed them, and made their hearts grow hard; they change the words from their (right) places and forget a good part of the message that was sent them, nor wilt thou cease to find them- barring a few - ever bent on (new) deceits: but forgive them, and overlook (their misdeeds): for Allah loveth those who are kind." – (Qur´an 5:13)."From those, too, who call themselves Christians, We did take a covenant, but they forgot a good part of the message that was sent them: so we estranged them, with enmity and hatred between the one and the other, to the Day of Judgment. And soon will Allah show them what it is they have done." – (Qur´an 5:14)."Among the Jews are those who distort words from their [proper] usages and say, “We hear and disobey” and “Hear but be not heard” and “Ra‘ina,” twisting their tongues and defaming the religion. And if they had said [instead], “We hear and obey” and “Wait for us [to understand],” it would have been better for them and more suitable. But Allah has cursed them for their disbelief, so they believe not, except for a few." – (Quran 4:46)."Then woe to those who write the Book with their own hands, and then say: “This is from Allah,” to traffic with it for miserable price! - Woe to them for what their hands do write, and for the gain they make thereby." – (Qur´an 2:79).I think above Verses give us a clear evidence of what the Qur´an says about Bible.
There are truths in the Qur'an, but there is a reason for that. I would argue this from the standpoint that it really doesn't matter what the Qur'an says about much of anything. The truths in the Qur'an are there simply because since the creation of Islam (627 AD -- that is 627 years AFTER Christ, and much longer than that when considering the Jewish texts, given by God), Islam has adapted (and stolen) God's Word from the Jews, and Christians, and adapted it to its own unique, and different belief system.I have a story book that was written in 2007, by an author who was born in 1972. It is completely authentic, and has never changed since the time he wrote it in 2007. Should I go to it for spiritual truth, based soley on my claim that it is authentic? That would be foolish. The proof is in the fact that Islam was CREATED at a date AFTER the Christian and Jewish faiths. The only thing authentic about Islam, are the truths that Islam has *stolen* from Christian and Jewish authenticity, since the time Islam was created. That being said, yes, there are truths in the Qur'an. There should be... as the Qur'an has bits and parts of God's Word in it. As I said, it has taken God's Word FROM CHRISTIANS and Jews. God's Word remains the same, and God's Word is true regardless of who says it, where it is said, or where it is written.The problem is that the Qur'an, and in fact Islam, is responsible for changing God's Word. There is no authenticity in the Qur'an at all... accept for what it has kept in order from when it was stolen from the Christian and Jewish faiths, in 627 AD, when Islam was CREATED.Here is the truth. All who obey Christ, know the truth. They hear God's voice, and obey it. They turn to Christ and His Work on our behalf for the fogiveness of sins. All who do not obey Christ in doing this, have not known the truth, and these are the ones who will suffer judgement (those who denounce Christ as savior, as the Son of God given for their sins). Jesus is the Son of God, sent by our God and Father to bleed and die, in the flesh, for the sins of the whole world committed in the flesh. That is the truth. Believe on Him, and have eternal life (guaranteed). Do not... and suffer judgment, regardless of what the Qur'an claims... this is true.

 

[Alpha and Omega]

(Truth_Teller;55312)
There is no contradiction in the Noble Verses above.In the above Holy Verses (7:54, 10:3, 11:7, 32:4, and 25:59) we see that Allah Almighty clearly states that He created the universe in six days. Holy Verses (41:9-12) describe the primal creation of our physical earth and the physical heavens around us. If we count the two days mentioned in (41:9), the four days, mentioned in (41:10), and the two days mentioned in (41:12), we get a total of eight days. However, the four days in (41:10) include the two days in (41:9), because the processes described in (41:9-10) form one series. In the one case it is the creation of the formless matter of the earth; and in the other case it is the gradual evolution of the form of the earth, its mountains and seas, and its animal and vegetable life, with the "nourishment in due proportion, (41:10)" proper to each.
It does not say the four days (41:10) are two days of the verse (41:9) you are going beyond what the scripture says. It was a mathematical error that was made by a man not a God. (Truth_Teller;55312)
In Holy Verses (15:19-20, 13:3, and 16:15) we see that Allah Almighty took special care in planet earth to provide all the necessary means for us to be able to survive. This shows that the four days in (41:10) include the two days in (41:9), because the processes described in (41:9-10) form one series. Note: (41:9) talks about the creation of earth. (41:10, 13:3, 15:19-20, 13:3, and 16:15) talk about the gradual improvment and gifts from Allah Almighty of earth for us. The creation of earth without its complexity took two days, and the wonderful creations and gifts that Allah Almighty provided for us on earth took another two days.
If he made the earth in two days then why are all the other verses (7:54, 10:3, 11:7, 25:29) stating that he made it in six without saying anything about the complexity of the earth being made the other four days. Which is it he made it in 2 days or 6? Then if we take into account that the 4(for nourishment) + 2(for heavens) we still get the problem of 6 days without the earth. Again, nowhere does it say that the 4 days for nourishment are included in making of the earth in 2 days or the heavens in two days. It just does not add up and you are trying to make something out of nothing.I do not even want to comment on the latter of your post. But I will provide this....(Koran 26:192-196)Verily this is a revelation from the Lord of theworlds: with it came down the Spirit of Faith andTruth to thy heart and mind...in the prespicuousArabic tongue, without doubt it is announced in thewritings of revealed Books of former peoples.In this sura, we find that Koran is announced in the earlier writings. First point to note here is that none of the earlier revelations were in Arabic. For example, the earlier writings were Torah and Injil written in Hebrew and Greek.Two contradictions arise immediately: 1. How can an Arabic Koran be contained in books of other languages? 2. For verses (26:192-196) to be true, an earlier revelation X (for example) has to include those very verses (26:192-196) since the Koran is properly contained in all earlier revelations. Now, having those verses in the revelation X means that X itself has to be contained in yet another earlier revelation Y. Applying the same logic, Y has to be contained in yet another earlier revelation Z and so on. We find ourselves in an infinte loop which proves the absurdity of the verses (26:192-196)

 

[Truth_Teller]

Now this explanation might help:* Six or eight days of creation? Sura 7:54, 10:3, 11:7, and 25:59 clearly state that God created "the heavens and the earth" in six days. But in 41:9-12 the detailed description of the creation procedure adds up to eight days.They were six. The verses of 41:9-12 speak of overlapping actions in spans of four and two days each. The adverbs are the keys to understanding this. The verses of 11 and 12 use the adverbs "thummah" and "fa" which imply consecutiveness of action. Neither of these two, however, are used in verse 10 (the only one which mentions four days) which instead uses the adverb "wa" implying parallel, or "overlapping" actions. In other words, the grammar tells us that the four days mentioned in 10 are a continuation of the two mentioned in verse 9. The four days of "measuring the earth's sustenance" refers to the two days of the creation of the earth in addition to the two days of the "spreading out of the earth's features" (see next question).For example, the world renown track and fielder Carl Lewis might say "I am now 32 years old. I started elementary school when I was 6, then I spent 12 years studying for my high-school diploma and I spent 24 years training to be the world's best long-jumper. Then I settled down and have spent the last two years taking care of my family." Does this mean that he was 18 years old when he started training for the long jump? Did he continue till he was 42 years old? If we add 6 + 12 + 24 + 2 we get 44. How then can he be "32 years old" now?. To understand this we need to notice that he did not say that he started training when he was eighteen. He did not say "then" I trained for 24 years. We now realize that he started training at the same time he started elementary school, when he was 6. He went to school and trained for track and field at the same time. After he graduated from high-school he continued to train for 12 more years. They were "overlapping" actions.Now, if someone wishes to claim that Carl Lewis' statement is contradictory since he says that he is 32 years old but "the detailed description of the breakdown of the years" works out to 44 years, and that this is a "contradiction," then that is their choice.