When did God create his Son?No, I believe only God existed originally, and later God created His Son. God's Son was not immortal, so he was not exactly like God. When God resurrected Jesus, after Jesus had proved himself loyal to God and learned obedience, He gave him immortality, so now Jesus may have identical nature to God, in which case God's promises to Christians is indeed exceedingly great! :
2 Peter 1:4 WEB
(4) by which he has granted to us his precious and exceedingly great promises; that through these you may become partakers of the divine nature, having escaped from the corruption that is in the world by lust.1 John 3:2 WEB
(2) Beloved, now we are children of God, and it is not yet revealed what we will be. But we know that when he is revealed, we will be like him; for we will see him just as he is.Hebrews 5:7-10 WEB
(7) He, in the days of his flesh, having offered up prayers and petitions with strong crying and tears to him who was able to save him from death, and having been heard for his godly fear,(8) though he was a Son, yet learned obedience by the things which he suffered.(9) Having been made perfect, he became to all of those who obey him the author of eternal salvation,(10) named by God a high priest after the order of Melchizedek.
Col. 1:16 also says that all things were created by the Son:All things (all of creation) are from God, because they are His design and it was His will that they be created. God chose that His Son should perform the creative acts, according to God's plan. Colossians 1:16 says that all created things were for God's Son (as Jesus said in prayer, "All things that are mine are yours, and yours are mine, and I am glorified in them" - John 17:10).
Col 1:16 For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things were created through him and for him.
I take it then that you don't really believe what that verse is saying, just like John 1:3 and 1 Cor. 8:6. If "all things" were created by the Son, then how can the Son be created, as you claim? If just one thing wasn't created by the Son--and he certainly didn't create himself--then isn't it false that "by him all things were created"?
Or, as John puts it in John 1:3: "All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made." That precludes the Son from being created, does it not? If the Son was made, then how can it also be true that "without him was not any thing made that was made"? If one thing was made without the Son, that is, himself, the it cannot be true that "without him was not any thing made that was made."
Note that Romans 10:9 begins with confessing that "Jesus is Lord." The "fors" then begin. So when Paul says that "the same Lord is Lord of all," and "everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved," he is speaking of Jesus, not the Father. That is how it works; that is the clear flow of thought.The "for"s introduce further explanation. Verse 10 comments more on faith/belief.
Verse 11 is indeed referring to Jesus, as the Scripture Paul is referring to is Isaiah 28:16 (Septuagint - the translation used by Jesus and the early Christians):
(16) Therefore thus saith the Lord, even the Lord, Behold, I lay for the foundations of Sion a costly stone, a choice, a corner-stone, a precious stone, for its foundations; and he that believes on him shall by no means be ashamed.
Verse 12 refers to God making no distinction between believers in Christ - compare with Romans 3:21-30 WEB
(21) But now apart from the law, a righteousness of God has been revealed, being testified by the law and the prophets;(22) even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ to all and on all those who believe. For there is no distinction,(23) for all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God;(24) being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus;(25) whom God sent to be an atoning sacrifice, through faith in his blood, for a demonstration of his righteousness through the passing over of prior sins, in God’s forbearance;(26) to demonstrate his righteousness at this present time; that he might himself be just, and the justifier of him who has faith in Jesus.(27) Where then is the boasting? It is excluded. By what kind of law? Of works? No, but by a law of faith.(28) We maintain therefore that a man is justified by faith apart from the works of the law.(29) Or is God the God of Jews only? Isn’t he the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also,(30) since indeed there is one God who will justify the circumcised by faith, and the uncircumcised through faith.
When verse 12 says "the same Lord is Lord of all, and is rich to all who call on him" I believe it is referring to God, not Jesus - from the above and 1 Timothy 2:5 WEB
(5) For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
Rom 10:9 because, if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
Rom 10:10 For with the heart one believes and is justified, and with the mouth one confesses and is saved.
That flow of thought should be very clear--Paul is further explaining in v. 10 what he stated in v. 9.
Rom 10:11 For the Scripture says, “Everyone who believes in him will not be put to shame.”
Again, the same thought, but with reference to Isa. 28:16, which he quoted in 9:33.
Rom 10:12 For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek; for the same Lord is Lord of all, bestowing his riches on all who call on him.
This "for" is a continuation of what he has been saying in the previous verses. But, let's also look at Acts:
Act 10:36 As for the word that he sent to Israel, preaching good news of peace through Jesus Christ (he is Lord of all),
Peter certainly seemed to think that Jesus was Lord of all, or at least Luke did, so it seems reasonable to believe that Paul also did, which fits the flow of his argument.
Rom 10:13 For “everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved.”
And the last "for" is where Paul applies Joel 2:32 to Jesus, as support for what he stated in verses 9 and 10. Except here, we know that "Lord" is "LORD," "YHWH."
And, yet, Paul was writing to the church in Rome, as apostle to the Gentiles. While there would have been Jews he was addressing, who would have been familiar with the Septuagint, just as the writers of the NT were, that would likely have been what the Gentiles were using.The Septuagint indeed does subtitute 'Lord' for God's name, but the original Hebrew states God's name YHVH, as Paul and the Jews would have understood. They would not have believed it was referring to the Messiah. Joel 2:32 WEB
(32) It will happen that whoever will call on Yahweh’s name shall be saved; for in Mount Zion and in Jerusalem there will be those who escape, as Yahweh has said, and among the remnant, those whom Yahweh calls.
God YHVH calls people to Himself through Jesus - John 6:44 WEB
(44) No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him, and I will raise him up in the last day.