Biblical Support For Soliciting Prostitutes

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Wrangler

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Apparently come people want to hook up with some hookers and have no interest in hearing what God says in His Word.
Apparently, some people want to deny the ambiguity in the Bible. Yes, some verses may be taken to be against soliciting prostitutes but there are more explicit verses that condone it. Perhaps you falsely equate prostitution with fornication to attempt to make your case.

Do you think there is no ambiguity in the Bible?
 

RandyDawson

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Apparently, some people want to deny the ambiguity in the Bible

So you are out hooking up with street walkers having sex outside of marriage?

You know that is grievous sin before the Lord right?



Perhaps you falsely equate prostitution with fornication to attempt to make your case.

Some men may think since they have to share their money with their wives it's a form of prostitution.
Is this what you are talking about?

Or do you think it's all good for a single Christians man to go find a street walking hooker and have sex with her for money?
 
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Hope2day4ever

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Jesus is silent on the matter. The prohibition is adultery, having sex with a married person, which is different from the evolution condemning "extra marital sex." Let's examine 3 verses:
  1. Genesis 38:11-30. Judah having with Tamar, his daughter-in-law, dressed as a prostitute
  2. Judges 16:1 Samson has sex in Gaza with a prostitute.
  3. Proverbs 6:26 (NOG) A prostitute’s price is only a loaf of bread, but a married woman hunts for your life itself.
NOTE: What these 3 verses have in common is there is no moral condemnation against prostitution. (Some translations of Proverbs uses the term "whore" rather than prostitute.) The point of the chapter is cautioning against adultery and suggesting it is far cheaper to get sexual satisfaction by a whore or prostitute.

According to the NSRV study notes on the Commandment prohibiting coveting your neighbor's wife was considered a property crime, as the offspring in marriage was presumed to be from the husband and adultery violates this social contract.

And let's not forget Biblical wives Sara (The wife of Abraham), Leah and Rachel (wives of Jacob) had their servants have sex with their husbands. Yes, it was not for sexual satisfaction but procreation. Still the point is no Biblical condemnation for "extra marital sex." This article explains Dinah may not have been raped but "debased" by Shechem, and her brothers were enraged that her bride price would drop. And it explains why he wanted to marry her, overcome with passion not guilt over a sex crime. Let's examine passages in the NT:
  • 1 COR 7. Allows marriage to prevent vague "sexual immorality." v 6, Paul admits his words are not God’s command.
  • Other verses also speak vaguely about "sexual immorality" that some translations impose church doctrine prohibiting "fornication," which is not the same thing. (Acts 15:20; 1 Corinthians 5:1; 6:13, 18; 10:8; 2 Corinthians 12:21; Galatians 5:19; Ephesians 5:3; Colossians 3:5; 1 Thessalonians 4:3; Jude 7) Speaking of property crimes, "sexual immorality" must include rape and under age sex, which again is not the same thing as fornication.
IF "sexual immorality" includes consensual sex of unmarried adults, which fornication is, how do you reconcile that with the 3 verses originally cited?
IF you claim the NT set a higher standard, then that is the equivalent of yet another new law but Christ did not give us this higher standard. The only new law Jesus gave is in John 13, about love as he loved. Therefore, claiming the NT set a higher standard on this topic is eisegesis. We may conclude sex in marriage is preferred, as Paul wrote in 1 Cor 7, but not commanded by God. Thoughts?
Do we agree
Jesus is silent on the matter. The prohibition is adultery, having sex with a married person, which is different from the evolution condemning "extra marital sex." Let's examine 3 verses:
  1. Genesis 38:11-30. Judah having with Tamar, his daughter-in-law, dressed as a prostitute
  2. Judges 16:1 Samson has sex in Gaza with a prostitute.
  3. Proverbs 6:26 (NOG) A prostitute’s price is only a loaf of bread, but a married woman hunts for your life itself.
NOTE: What these 3 verses have in common is there is no moral condemnation against prostitution. (Some translations of Proverbs uses the term "whore" rather than prostitute.) The point of the chapter is cautioning against adultery and suggesting it is far cheaper to get sexual satisfaction by a whore or prostitute.

According to the NSRV study notes on the Commandment prohibiting coveting your neighbor's wife was considered a property crime, as the offspring in marriage was presumed to be from the husband and adultery violates this social contract.

And let's not forget Biblical wives Sara (The wife of Abraham), Leah and Rachel (wives of Jacob) had their servants have sex with their husbands. Yes, it was not for sexual satisfaction but procreation. Still the point is no Biblical condemnation for "extra marital sex." This article explains Dinah may not have been raped but "debased" by Shechem, and her brothers were enraged that her bride price would drop. And it explains why he wanted to marry her, overcome with passion not guilt over a sex crime. Let's examine passages in the NT:
  • 1 COR 7. Allows marriage to prevent vague "sexual immorality." v 6, Paul admits his words are not God’s command.
  • Other verses also speak vaguely about "sexual immorality" that some translations impose church doctrine prohibiting "fornication," which is not the same thing. (Acts 15:20; 1 Corinthians 5:1; 6:13, 18; 10:8; 2 Corinthians 12:21; Galatians 5:19; Ephesians 5:3; Colossians 3:5; 1 Thessalonians 4:3; Jude 7) Speaking of property crimes, "sexual immorality" must include rape and under age sex, which again is not the same thing as fornication.
IF "sexual immorality" includes consensual sex of unmarried adults, which fornication is, how do you reconcile that with the 3 verses originally cited?
IF you claim the NT set a higher standard, then that is the equivalent of yet another new law but Christ did not give us this higher standard. The only new law Jesus gave is in John 13, about love as he loved. Therefore, claiming the NT set a higher standard on this topic is eisegesis. We may conclude sex in marriage is preferred, as Paul wrote in 1 Cor 7, but not commanded by God. Thoughts?
Are you talking about those whom actively choose to do this and agree for payment? Where I am, people rape you and fantasize that they had sex with you but you don't know them, you did not consent, nor did you get paid a dine for the sexual assult they did to you. This includes fistulas and bleeding rectal for 2 weeks at a time among other things they have done. So are you discussing the common prostitute on the street, or the fantasy version with the strange state I was trafficked to
 
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1 Corinthians 7:3-5
"The husband should give to his wife her conjugal rights, and likewise the wife to her husband.
4 For the wife does not have authority over her own body, but the husband does. Likewise the husband does not have authority over his own body, but the wife does.
5 Do not deprive one another, except perhaps by agreement for a limited time, that you may devote yourselves to prayer; but then come together again, so that Satan may not tempt you because of your lack of self-control.". ESV

I've been married for 26+ years. My wife was a victim of sadistic emotional, physical and sexual abuse from a a former husband. This wasn't revealed by my wife until several years into the marriage. I'm considered the secondary victim due to my wife's trauma. The reality is that I love my wife dearly with the love of Christ. As a couple, we have had physical intimacy approximately 3-4 times in the last fifteen years. This situation has compelled me to press into God ( Prayer, The Word, and Praise & Worship), diligently over the years. My wife is a beautiful person and my best friend on the earth. " I can do all things though Christ who strengthens me".
 
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TLHKAJ

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I've been married for 26+ years. My wife was a victim of sadistic emotional, physical and sexual abuse from a a former husband. This wasn't revealed by my wife until several years into the marriage. I'm considered the secondary victim due to my wife's trauma. The reality is that I love my wife dearly with the love of Christ. As a couple, we have had physical intimacy approximately 3-4 times in the last fifteen years. This situation has compelled me to press into God ( Prayer, The Word, and Praise & Worship), diligently over the years. My wife is a beautiful person and my best friend on the earth. " I can do all things though Christ who strengthens me".
I pray your wife will be healed of her past trauma. I am also a survivor of severe, sadistic trauma. God is able to bring healing, especially when in a safe, loving, healthy marriage relationship.
 

RandyDawson

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Do you think there is no ambiguity in the Bible?

There is zero ambiguity from God's Word concerning sexual sin.
It's sinful and you are trying to convince Christians it's not which makes you sinful.

I recommend that you repent of this sin of trying to trick Christians in to believing it pleases the Lord for them to hook up with prostitutes.
What will be the next topic of discussion? How blessed it is to have sex with animals or something?
 
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