(Ricky W;27606)
A'udzubillaahiminasysyaithonirrojiimBismillaahirrohmaanirrohiimDeuteronomy 34:10 (NIV)-(*the one that tyrel use for this verse) Since then, no prophet has risen in Israel like Moses.It seems like your argument was contrary with Deuteronomy, because it's clearly said in that verse that since Moses, there wouldn't be any prophet from Israel that has the same think like Moses did. Now if i'm seeing your yellow argument above, i see an contrary. Because God said, there wouldn't be a rise again among Israel a prophet that like Moses, but your yellow argument showing two things that make it an opposite. 1st Jesus was one of Israel, meanwhile God said there wouldn't be any prophet among Israel any more, which is i believe this prophet has related todo with Deu 18, why ? Because the fact according to bible, there are still several prophet who has come to Israel through Jacob descent. So it must be the prophet on Deu 18 that Deu 34 was talking about. 2nd. It said that there wouldn't be any prophet from Israel
that do same thing like Moses did., but on your yellow argument above, you are trying to make Jesus did the same thing, which is that would make a contrary prophesy.Are you understand what i'm saying tyrel ?But unfortanately Jesus (pbuh) has become something agains God Words, if we following what Christian believe regarding on Jesus, please pay attention on my previous post before this post for the reason why i'm giving this argument.Correct me for my wrong opinion regarding on what your scriptures has told.Best regards,Ricky WisnadriWallaahu a'lam.
Dear Ricky,I have gone over what you said, and please take what I say as having some weight here. While I can understand your tendency to want to assert, just as many devout Muslim Scholars have in the past, that this passage speaks faithfully of Muhammed, I assure you that this is impossible, and I am not saying that because of my beliefs. Whether Jesus is the Messiah or not, it is actually not possible that this passage speaks about Muhammed.Let me show you again why that is. Now, the reason why I've been hesitant from responding to you, is that your problem is fatal, and it is already answered. I'll make it clearer so that you can see it, but unfortunately your problem happens to be with the english language. Please, don't take any insult, but let me show you what I mean {btw, you know english just fine, but for whatever reason, you're actually using the KJV, not the greatest of translations, and it's very old english, so you have a greater chance of misunderstanding the Bible with it}.I will use the KJV and NIV side by side."The LORD your God will raise up for you a prophet like me from among your own brothers. You must listen to him. For this is what you asked of the LORD your God at Horeb on the day of the assembly when you said, "Let us not hear the voice of the LORD our God nor see this great fire anymore, or we will die." The LORD said to me: "What they say is good. I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers; I will put my words in his mouth, and he will tell them everything I command him. If anyone does not listen to my words that the prophet speaks in my name, I myself will call him to account." ~ Deuteronomy 18:15-19"“The LORD your God will raise up for you a Prophet like me from your midst, from your brethren. Him you shall hear, according to all you desired of the LORD your God in Horeb in the day of the assembly, saying, ‘Let me not hear again the voice of the LORD my God, nor let me see this great fire anymore, lest I die.’ “And the LORD said to me: ‘What they have spoken is good. I will raise up for them a Prophet like you from among their brethren, and will put My words in His mouth, and He shall speak to them all that I command Him. And it shall be that whoever will not hear My words, which He speaks in My name, I will require it of him."~ Deuteronomy 18:15-19In the first, it says "from among your brothers" and in the second it says "from you brethren". These two sentences in english {modern and old, respectively} mean exactly the same thing. Both mean that it is from among the brothers. I have already listed the reasons why this is Israel, even if we look upon only this passage. The text indicates that this one is to come from the people of Israel, from among, whom Moses calls "your own brothers". This sounds almost like we could construe it to mean Arabs, but as I pointed out, that term, in Hebrew, from what I know, doesn't appear once where it is not speaking of the tribes. When the Torah or Israel address ANY other people, they call them by the name "another people" {or by that people's name}.However, the case is absolutely proved in Deuteronomy 34:10-12. Let's observe;"Since then, no prophet has risen in Israel like Moses, whom the LORD knew face to face, who did all those miraculous signs and wonders the LORD sent him to do in Egypt—to Pharaoh and to all his officials and to his whole land. For no one has ever shown the mighty power or performed the awesome deeds that Moses did in the sight of all Israel.""But since then there has not arisen in Israel a prophet like Moses, whom the LORD knew face to face, in all the signs and wonders which the LORD sent him to do in the land of Egypt, before Pharaoh, before all his servants, and in all his land, and by all that mighty power and all the great terror which Moses performed in the sight of all Israel. "The problem you are having, once again, is in your understanding, or misunderstanding, of the english KJV. It says "since then [meaning, since that time when Moses died] There has not arisen in Israel [Since that time, that promise in Deuteronomy 18, of the prophet, hasn't been fulfilled, because there has been no prophet in Israel, yet, who] a prophet like Moses [was like Moses], whom the LORD knew face to face [who was known directly by God, and was holy enough to enter the tent and into communion with God, taking Moses' place as mediator of Covenant teaching] etc etc.This passage is clearly saying that the Jews are still waiting for the prophet to arise out of Israel. It does NOT say, in any way, shape or form, that he will not arise from Israel. On the contrary, it says he HAS to rise from Israel, HAS to be like Moses in his power and authority, and HAS to perform the great miraculous signs like Moses performed before Israel.Your problem with understanding the passage, is very simply with the english language. Ask any atheist, or non Christian, who is completely used to old english, to read this, and you will see that the NIV, and KJV agree. Both translations say exactly the same thing. I am terribly sorry it took so very long to post this.