Did Jesus claim to be God?

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brionne

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I began reading from verse 1, and when I got to verse 5 it fair hit me between the eyes!

And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.
John 17:5 KJV

Yes of course, Jesus had glory in heaven before he became a man on earth. But it was not the Glory of God himself. It was his own glory as a heavenly Son of God...the position of Gods firstborn is glorious and that is the glory he was to return to.

Colossians 1 explains it well:
Vs 15 "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation; 16 because by means of him all other things were created in the heavens and on the earth, the things visible and the things invisible,whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All other things have been created through him and for him. 17 Also, he is before all other things, and by means of him all other things were made to exist, 18 and he is the head of the body, the congregation. He is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, so that he might become the one who is first in all things; 19 because God was pleased to have all fullness to dwell in him, 20 and through him to reconcile to himself all other things by making peace through the blood he shed on the torture stake, whether the things on the earth or the things in the heavens".
 

brionne

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why do you say that? did not John 1:1c say, he, the Word was God?

now if John said that he, Jesus was God and "YOU" say he was not, who should we believe? the eye witness John, or you?

now, I understand why men say this, but I would like to hear what brought you to this conclusion. I always like to hear any opposing sides.

PICJAG.


John 1:1 comes down to translation. John said that Jesus was the Word. He also said he was With God.
If John meant to say that Jesus WAS God himself...why would he say he was WITH God?

This text clearly shows that John was speaking of 2 individuals.
 
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Cooper

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Yes of course, Jesus had glory in heaven before he became a man on earth. But it was not the Glory of God himself. It was his own glory as a heavenly Son of God...the position of Gods firstborn is glorious and that is the glory he was to return to.

Colossians 1 explains it well:
Col 1:15-20 KJV Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature: (16) For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: (17) And he is before all things, and by him all things consist. (18) And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead; that in all things he might have the preeminence. (19) For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell; (20) And, having made peace through the blood of his cross, by him to reconcile all things unto himself; by him, I say, whether they be things in earth, or things in heaven.

Can you not read? Jesus does everything, he is creator, ruler, KING OF KINGS, LORD OF LORDS and Saviour. The creator's name on earth is JESUS.

John 1:1 tells us "the Word WAS God." His name is Jesus. God of heaven and earth.
.
 
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Truther

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Jesus existed before the world began. John 3 clearly tells us Jesus was the creator. Jesus is God for heaven’s sake. How much longer are you going to deny Him.
.
Of course he did.....which he even died before the world began...


8 And all that dwell upon the earth shall worship him, whose names are not written in the book of life of the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.
 

Truther

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God IN Christ. God MANIFEST in Christ. God ON earth.

2Co_12:19 Again, think ye that we excuse ourselves unto you? we speak before God in Christ: but we do all things, dearly beloved, for your edifying.

Gal_3:17 And this I say, that the covenant, that was confirmed before of
God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect.

Php_3:14 I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of
God in Christ Jesus.

1Th_5:18 In every thing give thanks: for this is the will of
God in Christ Jesus concerning you.

What is it you don't understand? Or do you just read a few selected verses and that is all you know?
.
God INSIDE Christ. Correct.

Not, God as Christ.
 

101G

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John 1:1 comes down to translation. John said that Jesus was the Word. He also said he was With God.
If John meant to say that Jesus WAS God himself...why would he say he was WITH God?

This text clearly shows that John was speaking of 2 individuals.
GINOLJC, to all.
First thanks for the reply, second, you ERROR on "WITH", concering God. it's not 2 separate individuals. but one of "ANOTHER" of one's own self. meaning God is a "diversity" of his own felf in flesh. ONE in the SAME person. let us clearly explain our position on "WITH". this is clearly seen in the OT. Scripture, Isaiah 41:4 "Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he."
here brionne, the Lord said that he is the "I" or "he" which is a single person designation, (only one person). but this one PERSON said that he is the "First" and WITH the "Last", not two individuals, but numerically two of the same one person. read the verse again. notice the "WITH" is between the "First" and the "Last", see it now. but it's only one person. just as the Word and God is the same ONE person in John 1:1.

but lets see it even more clearly, listen. Isaiah 48:12 "Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last." see it now. "I" am the "First" and he, the "I" am a single person is "ALSO" the "Last", who is "I" am. notice ALSO means in addition to which indicate "ANOTHER", but this "ANOTHER" is the same one PERSON... "I" ... the "I AM" he, is a single person designation. this clearly shows that God is the ordinal "FIRST" of his ownself, and he is also the ordinal "LAST", of his ownself. the same ONE person diversified, or shared in flesh. in Greek, he's the Alpha and the Omega, which correspond to the Hebrew Aleph and the Tav, and the same as the beginning/FIRST and the end/LAST. all these title point to God's diversity as the "ANOTHER" of himself in flesh. and the Greek word G243 allos clearly point this out just as clearly as the OT Hebrew word H259 אֶחָד 'echad (ech-awd') adj. listen to the two definitions,
1. (properly) united, i.e. one.
2. (as an ordinal) first.
[a numeral from H258]
KJV: a, alike, alone, altogether, and, any(-thing), apiece, a certain, (dai-)ly, each (one), + eleven, every, few, first, + highway, a man, once, one, only, other, some, together.
Root(s): H258

my source for this definition, Mickelson's Enhanced Strong's Dictionaries of the Greek and Hebrew Testaments

the NT Greek word that is equivalent, G243 ἄλλος allos (al'-los)
Allos expresses a numerical difference and denotes another of the same sort

my source for this definition is Vine's Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words

a numerical difference is another of oneself in a different "FORM" as Philippians 2:6 or the OT scripture Isaiah 63:5. or as clear as day in John 14:16 "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;" (Bright as day).

so the NUMERICAL DIFFERENCE is (*not in persons), but in numbers. the "First" and "WITH" "Last",i t's the same one Person, numerically two. :eek: see it now?

Jesus who is God, is the ordinal "First" as Father, title LORD, (Spirit), all caps. and Jesus, the Share, (spirit), or the "Another" of himself in flesh is ordinal "Last", as a man, title "Lord"

so in John 1:1 the "WITH" indicate the same person "diversified" or shared as the another of one's ownself. which again is clearly seen in the OT scripture Zechariah 13:7 "Awake, O sword, against my shepherd, and against the man that is my fellow, saith the LORD of hosts: smite the shepherd, and the sheep shall be scattered: and I will turn mine hand upon the little ones." (BINGO, clear as day).

my research can be duplicated, for I have given scripture, and definition to back up what we have said. if you have any questions, please asked.

PICJAG.
 

Guestman

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The battle between Trinitarians and anti-Trinitarians has especially been ongoing since the 4th century C.E., when an older philosopher-theologian man named Arius of Alexanderia, Egypt (256-336 C.E.) contested a part of it with a younger philosopher-theologian man named Athanasius (293-373 C.E.), also from Alexandria, Egypt.(Note: it was here that the Alexandrian Greek manuscript of the 5th century was written, but which contained many spurious additions and changes from the more accurate Vatican 1209 Greek manuscript and the Codex Sinaiticus Greek manuscript, both of the 4th century)

Arius said that Jesus is really a son, that had a beginning, but also believed that the holy spirit was a person, though inferior to the Father and the Son, and Athanasius who maintained that there were three persons of the "Godhead" and were of the same substance and therefore, not three Gods but one.

Neither Arius nor Athanasius were accurate in their understanding of who God is.(Note: the word "Godhead" was created from the word "Godhood", and is an inaccurate offshoot of it. "Godhead" did not arise as part the English language until the 12th century C.E.)

So, what is the truth about God, Jesus and the holy spirit ? Let's start simple, with John 14:1, whereby Jesus, on the night before his execution, told his eleven faithful apostles: "Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me".(King James Bible)

And then a few moments later, Jesus tells his eleven faithful apostles to "rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father : for my Father is greater than I am".(John 14:28, King James Bible) What had Jesus established for his loyal apostles ? That he is not God, but inferior to him, separating himself at verse one and explaining that "God the Father" is "greater" than he is.

But some will turn to the old standby verse in the King James Bible of John 1:1, that says: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." But is that really how it reads ? The King James Bible was written in the 17th century C.E.

But what if this same verse was examined from a much earlier reading, say from around the 3rd century C.E. ? Oh, it needs to be noted that Koine Greek in which the Christian Greek Scriptures (commonly but inaccurately called the "New Testament") was written had no indefinite article (such as "a"), but did have a definite article (such as "the", being in Greek such as ton or ho and written in three genders of masculine, feminine and neuter).

So, when something was expressed in an indefinite tone, such as "a man", the reader had to discern this, while on the other hand, with the definite article of "the", the reader had it plainly before him. Now, let's examine John 1:1 with this on mind.

It literally says: "In beginning was the (definite article, defining a specific person) Word (who is Jesus here) and the (definite article, defining a specific person) Word was toward (or "with") the (definite article, defining a specific person, of God) God and God (no definite article, leaving it unspecified) was with the (definite article, defining again a specific person, Jesus) Word".

First off, how can "the Word" or Jesus be with God and at the same time be God ? Interesting question, but now, let's examine this a little deeper, for by leaving the word "god" indefinite the second time at John 1:1, the apostle John was telling his readers that "the Word" is not God Almighty, but just "a god" or a deity.

It was mentioned earlier that John 1:1 is found in a much earlier manuscript and this manuscript is in the Sahidic-Coptic language and a translation from Koine Greek (that has an indefinite article like the English "a"), written just few centuries after Jesus death, and that is located in the Chester Beatty Library in Dublin, Ireland and known as Manuscript 813, whereby it reads of John 1:1: "in the beginning existed the Word and the Word existed with the God and a god was the Word".

This manuscript precedes the King James Bible by over a 1,000 years and establishes (for reasonable people) that John 1:1 does not say that Jesus is God, but that Jesus is "a god" or a deity, and in which even the judges of ancient Israel were called "gods".(see Ps 82:1, 2 and Jesus words at John 10:34-36 whereby he refers to the judges of ancient Israel as "gods" and then tells his wicked Jewish audience that "I am God's Son", not God)

All a person has to do is look further at John 1:18 in an accurate Bible that says: "No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god (Jesus Christ) who is at the Father's side is the one who has explained him".(New World Translation; see also 1 John 4:12 which John says that "no man hath seen God at any time", King James Bible)
 
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2 Chr. 34:19

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*Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I Am (John.8:58).
*All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to Me (Matt.28:18).
*Thomas said ‘my Lord and my G_D-Jesus didn’t correct him.
*Jesus forgave sins [who can forgive sins but G_D alone?] (mk 2:7)
*Are you The Christ, The Son of The Blessed?...I Am...(mk 14:62)
*He was crucified for blasphemy-making Himself equal with G_D.
*He is The Alpha and The Omega.
 
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101G

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And then a few moments later, Jesus tells his eleven faithful apostles to "rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father : for my Father is greater than I am".(John 14:28, King James Bible) What had Jesus established for his loyal apostles ? That he is not God, but inferior to him, separating himself at verse one and explaining that "God the Father" is "greater" than he is.
we must disagree with that assessment, for a few reasons.

A. was he greater in Quality, or Quantity?. for according to Philippians 2:6 that answer that question. "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" so any inferiority in "quality" is mute. meaning he is God.

B. Jesus is not inferior to anyone for he is the ONLY who have immortality... meaning eternal life, per 1 Timothy 6:16 "Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen."
now, knowing that, he the Lord Jesus who is God, that verse eliminates any other "person" in any Godhead, or trinity. for "ONLY" means just that.... one PERSON. so there is no second, or third person.

C. and because he go to the Father, his own Spirit, he returns in his Spirit on the day of Pentecost. John 14:16 "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;"
John 14:17 "Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you."
John 14:18 "I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you." (BINGO).

so no, he just told his apostle that he is GOD. and these scriptures are audience relevance.

now to understand who Jesus as God, and as Lord, as thomas stated, is to understand John chapter 14. a question to you. since our Lord say he go away, QUESTION: "who sent him, (THE HOLY GHOST, the Lord Jesus?)", was it the one whom you call A. the Father, or B. the one whom you calls the Son. when you can answer that question correctly then we can move forward, that's if you desire. but remember one thing as to who sent the Holy Ghost/Spirit. READ John 14:26 and John 15:26 very carefully before you answer. I'll be looking for your answer.

PICJAG.
 

tigger 2

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The battle between Trinitarians and anti-Trinitarians has especially been ongoing since the 4th century C.E., when an older philosopher-theologian man named Arius of Alexanderia, Egypt (256-336 C.E.) contested a part of it with a younger philosopher-theologian man named Athanasius (293-373 C.E.), also from Alexandria, Egypt.(Note: it was here that the Alexandrian Greek manuscript of the 5th century was written, but which contained many spurious additions and changes from the more accurate Vatican 1209 Greek manuscript and the Codex Sinaiticus Greek manuscript, both of the 4th century)

Arius said that Jesus is really a son, that had a beginning, but also believed that the holy spirit was a person, though inferior to the Father and the Son, and Athanasius who maintained that there were three persons of the "Godhead" and were of the same substance and therefore, not three Gods but one.

Neither Arius nor Athanasius were accurate in their understanding of who God is.(Note: the word "Godhead" was created from the word "Godhood", and is an inaccurate offshoot of it. "Godhead" did not arise as part the English language until the 12th century C.E.)

So, what is the truth about God, Jesus and the holy spirit ? Let's start simple, with John 14:1, whereby Jesus, on the night before his execution, told his eleven faithful apostles: "Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me".(King James Bible)

And then a few moments later, Jesus tells his eleven faithful apostles to "rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father : for my Father is greater than I am".(John 14:28, King James Bible) What had Jesus established for his loyal apostles ? That he is not God, but inferior to him, separating himself at verse one and explaining that "God the Father" is "greater" than he is.

But some will turn to the old standby verse in the King James Bible of John 1:1, that says: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." But is that really how it reads ? The King James Bible was written in the 17th century C.E.

But what if this same verse was examined from a much earlier reading, say from around the 3rd century C.E. ? Oh, it needs to be noted that Koine Greek in which the Christian Greek Scriptures (commonly but inaccurately called the "New Testament") was written had no indefinite article (such as "a"), but did have a definite article (such as "the", being in Greek such as ton or ho and written in three genders of masculine, feminine and neuter).

So, when something was expressed in an indefinite tone, such as "a man", the reader had to discern this, while on the other hand, with the definite article of "the", the reader had it plainly before him. Now, let's examine John 1:1 with this on mind.

It literally says: "In beginning was the (definite article, defining a specific person) Word (who is Jesus here) and the (definite article, defining a specific person) Word was toward (or "with") the (definite article, defining a specific person, of God) God and God (no definite article, leaving it unspecified) was with the (definite article, defining again a specific person, Jesus) Word".

First off, how can "the Word" or Jesus be with God and at the same time be God ? Interesting question, but now, let's examine this a little deeper, for by leaving the word "god" indefinite the second time at John 1:1, the apostle John was telling his readers that "the Word" is not God Almighty, but just "a god" or a deity.

It was mentioned earlier that John 1:1 is found in a much earlier manuscript and this manuscript is in the Sahidic-Coptic language and a translation from Koine Greek (that has an indefinite article like the English "a"), written just few centuries after Jesus death, and that is located in the Chester Beatty Library in Dublin, Ireland and known as Manuscript 813, whereby it reads of John 1:1: "in the beginning existed the Word and the Word existed with the God and a god was the Word".

This manuscript precedes the King James Bible by over a 1,000 years and establishes (for reasonable people) that John 1:1 does not say that Jesus is God, but that Jesus is "a god" or a deity, and in which even the judges of ancient Israel were called "gods".(see Ps 82:1, 2 and Jesus words at John 10:34-36 whereby he refers to the judges of ancient Israel as "gods" and then tells his wicked Jewish audience that "I am God's Son", not God)

All a person has to do is look further at John 1:18 in an accurate Bible that says: "No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god (Jesus Christ) who is at the Father's side is the one who has explained him".(New World Translation; see also 1 John 4:12 which John says that "no man hath seen God at any time", King James Bible)

Trinitarians have been rendering John 1:1c into English as "and the Word was God" for hundreds of years. But it wasn't until 1933 that one of them came up with a grammatical reason for such a rendering (in spite of John's uses of parallel clauses which are translated differently by the same trinitarian Bible translators).

In 1933 Colwell came up with his rule which has been used to 'prove' that 'the god' (ho theos) was intended at John 1:1c. John uses "the god" when he intends "God." Colwell claimed that the word order John used here meant that "the" could be understood to be with theos. But when anyone actually studies John's grammar and usage, he finds that only examples which differ from that of John 1:1c are used by Colwell (and more recent trinitarian scholars, including P.B. Harner and D.B. Wallace) to prove his new rule.

Normally in NT Greek when there is a singular count noun without the definite article ('the'), it will have the English indefinite article ('a'/'an') added by translators.

If we select only those clauses by John where the predicate noun (theos in this case) is a count noun and is found before the verb ('was' in this case), AND it is used as in John 1:1c WITHOUT ADDED MODIFIERS ('god of us'; 'stone in the creek'; 'house for her'; etc.), they will be truly parallel to John 1:1c and will be found to be indefinite ('a stone'; 'a house'; 'a god'; etc.)

Here are some clauses in John's writings where the singular predicate count noun is before its verb, without the definite article, is not modified, and is therefore truly parallel to John 1:1c. Please examine them in the ASV, KJV, NASB, NIV, JB, and NKJV. Or, better yet, see them in a good interlinear.

H
1. John 4:9 (a) - indefinite (“a Jew”)

H,W 2. John 4:19 - indefinite (“a prophet”)

H,W 3. John 6:70 - indefinite (“a devil”/“a slanderer”)

H,W 4. John 8:44(a) - indefinite (“a murderer”/“a manslayer”)

H,W 5. John 8:48 - indefinite (“a Samaritan”)

H,W 6. John 9:24 - indefinite (“a sinner”) - all

H,W 7. John 10:1 - indefinite (“a thief and a plunderer”)

H,W 8. John 10:33 - indefinite (“a man”)

H,W 9. John 18:35 - indefinite (“a Jew”) - all

H,W 10. John 18:37 (a) - indefinite (“a king”) - all

[H,W 11. John 18:37 (b) - indefinite (“a king”) - in Received Text and in 1991 Byzantine Text]

H: Also found in Harner’s list of “Colwell Constructions”
W: Also found in Wallace’s list of “Colwell Constructions”

According to the writings of John himself, John 1:1c should be understood as "and the Word was a god."

For a more complete study of this important scripture, see:

http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2013/02/seven-lessons-for-john-11c-a.html
 

101G

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@tigger 2, John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.". putting all grammer aside, and using the Word of God only, here's why I believe that at John 1:1c "God" is correct instead of "god". Deuteronomy 32:39 "See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no god with me: I kill, and I make alive; I wound, and I heal: neither is there any that can deliver out of my hand."

clearly God himself said that there is no "god" with him. well that ended the controversy for me concering a "god" "WITH" him, or the Word was a "god".

God's grammer rank supreme. because all of the versions you gave states "god" in Deuteronomy 32:39 as not "with" God, so they are are NOT grammarly correct in substance... meaning the TRUTH. so they contridict themselves. .

so John 1:1 is correct.

PICJAG.
 
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Truther

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we must disagree with that assessment, for a few reasons.

A. was he greater in Quality, or Quantity?. for according to Philippians 2:6 that answer that question. "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:" so any inferiority in "quality" is mute. meaning he is God.

B. Jesus is not inferior to anyone for he is the ONLY who have immortality... meaning eternal life, per 1 Timothy 6:16 "Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen."
now, knowing that, he the Lord Jesus who is God, that verse eliminates any other "person" in any Godhead, or trinity. for "ONLY" means just that.... one PERSON. so there is no second, or third person.

C. and because he go to the Father, his own Spirit, he returns in his Spirit on the day of Pentecost. John 14:16 "And I will pray the Father, and he shall give you another Comforter, that he may abide with you for ever;"
John 14:17 "Even the Spirit of truth; whom the world cannot receive, because it seeth him not, neither knoweth him: but ye know him; for he dwelleth with you, and shall be in you."
John 14:18 "I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you." (BINGO).

so no, he just told his apostle that he is GOD. and these scriptures are audience relevance.

now to understand who Jesus as God, and as Lord, as thomas stated, is to understand John chapter 14. a question to you. since our Lord say he go away, QUESTION: "who sent him, (THE HOLY GHOST, the Lord Jesus?)", was it the one whom you call A. the Father, or B. the one whom you calls the Son. when you can answer that question correctly then we can move forward, that's if you desire. but remember one thing as to who sent the Holy Ghost/Spirit. READ John 14:26 and John 15:26 very carefully before you answer. I'll be looking for your answer.

PICJAG.
If the Father is the same person as the son, then the son impregnated his mother(Mary)?
 

Cooper

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Trinitarians have been rendering John 1:1c into English as "and the Word was God" for hundreds of years. But it wasn't until 1933 that one of them came up with a grammatical reason for such a rendering (in spite of John's uses of parallel clauses which are translated differently by the same trinitarian Bible translators).

In 1933 Colwell came up with his rule which has been used to 'prove' that 'the god' (ho theos) was intended at John 1:1c. John uses "the god" when he intends "God." Colwell claimed that the word order John used here meant that "the" could be understood to be with theos. But when anyone actually studies John's grammar and usage, he finds that only examples which differ from that of John 1:1c are used by Colwell (and more recent trinitarian scholars, including P.B. Harner and D.B. Wallace) to prove his new rule.

Normally in NT Greek when there is a singular count noun without the definite article ('the'), it will have the English indefinite article ('a'/'an') added by translators.

If we select only those clauses by John where the predicate noun (theos in this case) is a count noun and is found before the verb ('was' in this case), AND it is used as in John 1:1c WITHOUT ADDED MODIFIERS ('god of us'; 'stone in the creek'; 'house for her'; etc.), they will be truly parallel to John 1:1c and will be found to be indefinite ('a stone'; 'a house'; 'a god'; etc.)

Here are some clauses in John's writings where the singular predicate count noun is before its verb, without the definite article, is not modified, and is therefore truly parallel to John 1:1c. Please examine them in the ASV, KJV, NASB, NIV, JB, and NKJV. Or, better yet, see them in a good interlinear.

H
1. John 4:9 (a) - indefinite (“a Jew”)

H,W 2. John 4:19 - indefinite (“a prophet”)

H,W 3. John 6:70 - indefinite (“a devil”/“a slanderer”)

H,W 4. John 8:44(a) - indefinite (“a murderer”/“a manslayer”)

H,W 5. John 8:48 - indefinite (“a Samaritan”)

H,W 6. John 9:24 - indefinite (“a sinner”) - all

H,W 7. John 10:1 - indefinite (“a thief and a plunderer”)

H,W 8. John 10:33 - indefinite (“a man”)

H,W 9. John 18:35 - indefinite (“a Jew”) - all

H,W 10. John 18:37 (a) - indefinite (“a king”) - all

[H,W 11. John 18:37 (b) - indefinite (“a king”) - in Received Text and in 1991 Byzantine Text]

H: Also found in Harner’s list of “Colwell Constructions”
W: Also found in Wallace’s list of “Colwell Constructions”

According to the writings of John himself, John 1:1c should be understood as "and the Word was a god."

For a more complete study of this important scripture, see:

http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2013/02/seven-lessons-for-john-11c-a.html

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was (a) God. He was in the beginning with God. All things came into being through him, and without him not one thing came into being. What has come into being in him was life, and the life was the light of all people. (Joh 1:1-4 NRSVA)

Questions:
Who was in the beginning? (the Word)
Who was with God? (the Word)
Who was in the beginning with God? (the Word)
Who caused all things to come into being? (the Word)
Who was the giver of life? (the Word)

According to verse 14
Who became flesh and dwelt among us? (the Word)
What was the name of the Word on earth who caused all things to come into being? (Jesus.)
.
 
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2 Chr. 34:19

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The battle between Trinitarians and anti-Trinitarians has especially been ongoing since the 4th century C.E., when an older philosopher-theologian man named Arius of Alexanderia, Egypt (256-336 C.E.) contested a part of it with a younger philosopher-theologian man named Athanasius (293-373 C.E.), also from Alexandria, Egypt.(Note: it was here that the Alexandrian Greek manuscript of the 5th century was written, but which contained many spurious additions and changes from the more accurate Vatican 1209 Greek manuscript and the Codex Sinaiticus Greek manuscript, both of the 4th century)

Arius said that Jesus is really a son, that had a beginning, but also believed that the holy spirit was a person, though inferior to the Father and the Son, and Athanasius who maintained that there were three persons of the "Godhead" and were of the same substance and therefore, not three Gods but one.

Neither Arius nor Athanasius were accurate in their understanding of who God is.(Note: the word "Godhead" was created from the word "Godhood", and is an inaccurate offshoot of it. "Godhead" did not arise as part the English language until the 12th century C.E.)

So, what is the truth about God, Jesus and the holy spirit ? Let's start simple, with John 14:1, whereby Jesus, on the night before his execution, told his eleven faithful apostles: "Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me".(King James Bible)

And then a few moments later, Jesus tells his eleven faithful apostles to "rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father : for my Father is greater than I am".(John 14:28, King James Bible) What had Jesus established for his loyal apostles ? That he is not God, but inferior to him, separating himself at verse one and explaining that "God the Father" is "greater" than he is.

But some will turn to the old standby verse in the King James Bible of John 1:1, that says: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." But is that really how it reads ? The King James Bible was written in the 17th century C.E.

But what if this same verse was examined from a much earlier reading, say from around the 3rd century C.E. ? Oh, it needs to be noted that Koine Greek in which the Christian Greek Scriptures (commonly but inaccurately called the "New Testament") was written had no indefinite article (such as "a"), but did have a definite article (such as "the", being in Greek such as ton or ho and written in three genders of masculine, feminine and neuter).

So, when something was expressed in an indefinite tone, such as "a man", the reader had to discern this, while on the other hand, with the definite article of "the", the reader had it plainly before him. Now, let's examine John 1:1 with this on mind.

It literally says: "In beginning was the (definite article, defining a specific person) Word (who is Jesus here) and the (definite article, defining a specific person) Word was toward (or "with") the (definite article, defining a specific person, of God) God and God (no definite article, leaving it unspecified) was with the (definite article, defining again a specific person, Jesus) Word".

First off, how can "the Word" or Jesus be with God and at the same time be God ? Interesting question, but now, let's examine this a little deeper, for by leaving the word "god" indefinite the second time at John 1:1, the apostle John was telling his readers that "the Word" is not God Almighty, but just "a god" or a deity.

It was mentioned earlier that John 1:1 is found in a much earlier manuscript and this manuscript is in the Sahidic-Coptic language and a translation from Koine Greek (that has an indefinite article like the English "a"), written just few centuries after Jesus death, and that is located in the Chester Beatty Library in Dublin, Ireland and known as Manuscript 813, whereby it reads of John 1:1: "in the beginning existed the Word and the Word existed with the God and a god was the Word".

This manuscript precedes the King James Bible by over a 1,000 years and establishes (for reasonable people) that John 1:1 does not say that Jesus is God, but that Jesus is "a god" or a deity, and in which even the judges of ancient Israel were called "gods".(see Ps 82:1, 2 and Jesus words at John 10:34-36 whereby he refers to the judges of ancient Israel as "gods" and then tells his wicked Jewish audience that "I am God's Son", not God)

All a person has to do is look further at John 1:18 in an accurate Bible that says: "No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god (Jesus Christ) who is at the Father's side is the one who has explained him".(New World Translation; see also 1 John 4:12 which John says that "no man hath seen God at any time", King James Bible)
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
Greek transliteration En arkhêi ên ho lógos, kaì ho lógos ên pròs tòn theón, kaì theòs ên ho lógos.
SyriacPeshitta ܒ݁ܪܺܫܺܝܬ݂ ܐܺܝܬ݂ܰܘܗ݈ܝ ܗ݈ܘܳܐ ܡܶܠܬ݂ܳܐ ܘܗܽܘ ܡܶܠܬ݂ܳܐ ܐܺܝܬ݂ܰܘܗ݈ܝ ܗ݈ܘܳܐ ܠܘܳܬ݂ ܐܰܠܳܗܳܐ ܘܰܐܠܳܗܳܐ ܐܺܝܬ݂ܰܘܗ݈ܝ ܗ݈ܘܳܐ ܗܽܘ ܡܶܠܬ݂ܳܐ ܀‎
Syriac transliteration brīšīṯ ʾiṯawhi milṯā, whu milṯā ʾiṯauhi hwā luaṯ ʾalāhā; wʾalāhā iṯauhi hwā hu milṯā
SahidicCoptic ϨΝ ΤЄϨΟΥЄΙΤЄ ΝЄϤϢΟΟΠ ΝϬΙΠϢΑϪЄ, ΑΥШ ΠϢΑϪЄ ΝЄϤϢΟΟΠ ΝΝΑϨΡΜ ΠΝΟΥΤЄ. ΑΥШ ΝЄΥΝΟΥΤЄ ΠЄ ΠϢΑϪЄ
Sahidic Coptic transliteration Hn teHoueite neFSoop nCi pSaJe auw pSaJe neFSoop nnaHrm pnoute auw neunoute pe pSaJe.
Sahidic Coptic to English In the beginning existed the Word, and the Word existed with God, and God was the Word.
Latin Vulgate In principio erat Verbum, et Verbum erat apud Deum, et Deus erat Verbum.
 
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