Especially since the bible tells us:If meaning Jerusalem in the first century but has already been fulfilled, meaning the following---and shall be found no more at all---and that it is still found today undeniably contradicts Revelation 18:21.
Therefore, Preterists treat this phrase 'no more' the same way Amils treat this phrase 'no more' in Revelation 20:3. That it doesn't literally mean what it says. How can be found no more literally mean that if it can still be found after it can be found no more? Don't some of these interpreters even know what a contradiction looks like? Don't some of these interpreters even realize(it's not like they are not intelligent, therefore, they have no excuse) that if per their interpretation if something is contradicting something rather than agreeing, that it means the interpretation itself is not valid, in that case?
Granted, some contradictions are not always obvious, yet some plainly are. In the book of Revelation the phrase 'no more' is used a number of times in various verses. Not one single time does it ever mean what Preterists have it meaning in Revelation 18:21 and what Amils have it meaning in Revelation 20:3. In each case here all one has to do is compare with reality in order to debunk their interpretations. Jerusalem can still be found, even right now. Nations are still being deceived when Revelation 20:3 says they can't be, even right now and for the past 2K years.
1 Pe 5:8 Be sober, be vigilant; because your adversary the devil, as a roaring lion, walketh about, seeking whom he may devour:
It's clear that Satan is not yet currently bound