Did Jesus return around 70 AD?

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Truth7t7

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The "HE" who confirms the covenant with many in Daniel 9:27 is JESUS CHRIST!
Your Claim Above Is "False" Jesus Doesn't Cause Abomination As Seen In Daniel 9:27

"Daniel's AOD Is Future" and the bad guy causing the Abomination and Desolation will be present on earth to the "Consummation" The Ultimate End

"Future" Events Unfulfilled


Matthew 24:15KJV
15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand:)

This "Future" evil figure (The Beast) will be present on earth making (Abomination & Desolation) to the (Consummation) or (The Ultimate End) "Future" Event(s) Unfulfilled

(The Future Consummation)

2 Peter 3:10KJV
10 But
the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.

Merriam-Webster
Definition of consummation

1: the act of consummating the consummation of a contract by mutual signature specifically : the consummating of a marriage
2:
the ultimate end

Daniel's AOD (Even Until The Consummation) "Future" (The End)

Daniel 9:27KJV
27 And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and
for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.
 
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ewq1938

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Matthew 24:21 was fulfilled between 66 and 70 AD.


No, it wasn't. All of the OD has yet to happen and Christ said one generation would see all the events includoing the Coming and rapture not some of them.
 

sondring7

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Matthew 24:21 was fulfilled between 66 and 70 AD. Read verse 16. More than obvious. And also read the the first 3 verses of that chapter.
Maybe my question was hard to understand.
Try this :)
Was 66-70 AD the GREATEST tribulation there ever was and will ever be ?
 

grafted branch

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Where does Scripture teach your rule that Scripture interprets Scripture for doctrine but not for prophetic fulfillment after the canon was completed?
Here’s a simple test.
If you can tell me the exact day and time the church goes apostate using only the scripture with no extra Biblical evidence, then you have used scripture to interpret scripture for a prophetic fulfillment. Post that date and how you arrived at it so we can all learn.
If you have to use any extra Biblical information whatsoever to know when the church goes apostate then you have your answer to the question above. In this case it’s you that needs to learn.

1 Corinthians 14:33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.