Did Jesus say that adultery is grounds for divorce? - Nope.

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St. SteVen

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On the other hand, the things that constitute a marriage are "leaving one's parents" and "becoming one flesh" which is the same thing that people who fornicate do. The line between "pre-marital" sex and consummating a marriage actually quite gray from a Biblical standpoint.
The point of the topic OP is to question the position of the church on the grounds for divorce based on what they claim Jesus said.
They fail to understand the difference between fornication and adultery AND the Jewish law surrounding a non-virgin bride.
Jesus wasn't promoting divorce on the basis of adultery. He was condemning divorce except in the case of a non-virgin bride.

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Grailhunter

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The line between "pre-marital" sex and consummating a marriage actually quite gray from a Biblical standpoint.

You could not be more wrong. Up until the Protestants made church wedding ceremonies a requirement to be married in the 16th century, a couple having sex was how marriages were formed. All through the scriptures this was how it was done. No biblical requirement for a wedding ceremony to be married.

On the other hand, the things that constitute a marriage are "leaving one's parents" and "becoming one flesh" which is the same thing that people who fornicate do.
Fornication has nothing to do with Christianity. It is a non-biblical cliché that was formulated in the 4th century. The word fornication does not appear in the scriptures. It is one of those clichés that has caused theological false beliefs and completely false in relation to the reality of how marriages are formed.
 

Runningman

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The point of the topic OP is to question the position of the church on the grounds for divorce based on what they claim Jesus said.
They fail to understand the difference between fornication and adultery AND the Jewish law surrounding a non-virgin bride.
Jesus wasn't promoting divorce on the basis of adultery. He was condemning divorce except in the case of a non-virgin bride.

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In light of the Jewish law concerning non-virgin brides nothing much changes from my previous comment. The only guideline regarding a wedding ceremony in the Bible is simply "becoming one flesh" which is just a euphemism for sex.
 
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Runningman

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You could not be more wrong. Up until the Protestants made church wedding ceremonies a requirement to be married in the 16th century, a couple having sex was how marriages were formed. All through the scriptures this was how it was done. No biblical requirement for a wedding ceremony to be married.


Fornication has nothing to do with Christianity. It is a non-biblical cliché that was formulated in the 4th century. The word fornication does not appear in the scriptures. It is one of those clichés that has caused theological false beliefs and completely false in relation to the reality of how marriages are formed.
I just base my commentary on the Bible. If I have missed something regarding marriage requirements please let me know.
 

Grailhunter

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I just base my commentary on the Bible. If I have missed something regarding marriage requirements please let me know.

You my find the word wedding in a bible but not in the actual scriptures. No requirement for a wedding.
Fornication is another word you will not find in the scriptures.....for one thing it is a 4th century Latin word that does not represent the scriptures.
 

Runningman

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You my find the word wedding in a bible but not in the actual scriptures. No requirement for a wedding.
Fornication is another word you will not find in the scriptures.....for one thing it is a 4th century Latin word that does not represent the scriptures.
I think we basically agree as far as I can tell.
 

Fred J

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The point of the topic OP is to question the position of the church on the grounds for divorce based on what they claim Jesus said.
They fail to understand the difference between fornication and adultery AND the Jewish law surrounding a non-virgin bride.
Jesus wasn't promoting divorce on the basis of adultery. He was condemning divorce except in the case of a non-virgin bride.

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In the same law also include 'adultery', Leviticus 20:10/Deuteronomy 22:22

i believe in the spirit and according to the wisdom given us by All Scripture = Holy Bible, Jesus meant both 'fornication' and 'adultery'.

Both are 'sexual immorality', one committed 'before marriage', while the other 'after marriage', on the ground of 'divorce'.

Also Jesus added that those who are able to forgive the 'guilty' and remain married, a great deed.

Shalom in the name of Jesus Christ.
 

St. SteVen

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In the same law also include 'adultery', Leviticus 20:10/Deuteronomy 22:22
Not as grounds for divorce.

Leviticus 20:10​

10 “‘If a man commits adultery with another man’s wife—with the wife of his neighbor—
both the adulterer and the adulteress are to be put to death.

Deuteronomy 22:22​

22 If a man is found sleeping with another man’s wife, both the man who slept with her
and the woman must die. You must purge the evil from Israel.

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St. SteVen

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i believe in the spirit and according to the wisdom given us by All Scripture = Holy Bible, Jesus meant both 'fornication' and 'adultery'.
How can you substantiate that?
Playing the God card isn't enough.

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Fred J

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Not as grounds for divorce.

Leviticus 20:10​

10 “‘If a man commits adultery with another man’s wife—with the wife of his neighbor—
both the adulterer and the adulteress are to be put to death.

Deuteronomy 22:22​

22 If a man is found sleeping with another man’s wife, both the man who slept with her
and the woman must die. You must purge the evil from Israel.

[
Apparently not in the Old Testament, for Christ have 'fulfilled' and given and made with us the New Testament.

So you're speaking for Christ that there's no divorce on the ground of 'adultery', but only on the ground of 'fornication'?

To your Christ, believers can divorce their spouse if she's found to be 'not virgin' obviously, while men go scot free?

And, believers have no ground to divorce on the ground of 'adultery', hence continuously one's spouse go around committing 'sexual immorality' with other men and women?

Shalom in the name of Jesus Christ
 

Fred J

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How can you substantiate that?
Playing the God card isn't enough.

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2 Peter 3:
15. And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you;
16. As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scripture, unto their own destruction.



Likewise, playing the Pharisee card isn't enough.

Shalom in the name of Jesus Christ
 

St. SteVen

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St. SteVen said:
How can you substantiate that?
2 Peter 3:
15. And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you;
16. As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scripture, unto their own destruction.
How does that substantiate this? (smoke and mirrors) ???

Fred J said:
i believe in the spirit and according to the wisdom given us by All Scripture = Holy Bible, Jesus meant both 'fornication' and 'adultery'.

[
 
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Fred J

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Chapter and verse please. Good find if you have it. Thanks.

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It is according to the wisdom given us based on All Scripture = Holy Bible.

Supporting scripture are the woman caught in adultery and the Samaritan women at the well.

Didn't Jesus forgave them without a trial and guilty certificate, because of grace and truth He brought from the FATHER?

And how times shall we forgive our brother even if he continue to wrong us?

What if i forgive my spouse, if it was a mistake, and another mistake, before i take the immediate ground of divorce?

Then enough is enough, only then take the ground of divorce, yet forgive and pray for my ex still, isn't it a great deed?

"And forgive us our debts, as we forgive our debtors."

Shalom in the name of Jesus Christ
 

Fred J

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St. SteVen said:
How can you substantiate that?

How does that substantiate this? (smoke and mirrors) ???

Fred J said:
You are ignoring content by this member.
i believe in the spirit and according to the wisdom given us by All Scripture = Holy Bible, Jesus meant both 'fornication' and 'adultery'.

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Quick Pharisee thinking.....
 

St. SteVen

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Quick Pharisee thinking.....
Why are you accusing me of being a pharisee?
Simply because I disagree with your position?
You have failed to substantiate your claim.
How does that make me a pharisee?

You are parroting the false conclusion that this topic is intended to address.

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St. SteVen

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Supporting scripture are the woman caught in adultery and the Samaritan women at the well.
Jesus didn't condemn either of those women.
And what about the men?

Certainly not a support for Jesus allowing for divorce in the case of adultery.
God HATES divorce. Right? Why would Jesus allow it?

Matthew 19:8 NIV
Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard.
But it was not this way from the beginning.

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St. SteVen

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So you're speaking for Christ that there's no divorce on the ground of 'adultery', but only on the ground of 'fornication'?
Speaking for Christ? That's what he said.
The NT Greek uses a different word for fornication and adultery.

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Fred J

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Jesus didn't condemn either of those women.
And what about the men?

Certainly not a support for Jesus allowing for divorce in the case of adultery.
God HATES divorce. Right? Why would Jesus allow it?

Matthew 19:8 NIV
Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard.
But it was not this way from the beginning.

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To correct that of yours, in the Gospel Jesus had more of a field day rebuking and correcting the men than the women.

Shalom in the name of Jesus Christ