Did John really write Revelation while on Patmos? Maybe not.

[DJT_47]

Read closely Rev 1:9

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​ 9I John, who also am your brother, and companion in tribulation, and in the kingdom and patience of Jesus Christ, was in the isle that is called Patmos, for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ. Note the word highlighted, "was", that it's past tense. Why past tense and not present tense? If John were writing while yet on Patmos, "was" would not have been used, but rather 'am'. This leads me to believe it was written sometime after his exile had ended, consistent with Rev 10:11 wherein he's told he must again prophesy (below). Rev 10:11 11And he said unto me, Thou must prophesy again before many peoples, and nations, and tongues, and kings. ​ ​

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[marks]

Read closely Rev 1:9

I was sitting at my desk reading your post not more than two minutes ago. I'm still happen to be here now.

Much love!

 

[RedFan]

Victorinus suggests that John wrote it after leaving Patmos, in Commentary on the Apocalypse of the Blessed John, Chap. 10, section 11.

 

[BlessedPeace]

It's like Paul's prison letters.

Is it conceivable men sentenced to exile or prison for teaching the gospel would be allowed to continue while in exile or prison?

Guards over Paul would have been executed if they were found to give him writing implements and smuggled out his work.

Same with John. He's exiled to an island yet given writing materials? So to continue in the vein that got him sentenced to Patmos.


And why exile him? When supposedly all other apostles were executed for their service?

 

[Lambano]

The phrase used is ἐγενόμην ἐν τῇ νήσῳ τῇ καλουμένῃ Πάτμῳ. "ἐγενόμην" is the first person second aorist middle deponent (phew!) form of "γίνομαι", which means "to become". The aorist form is technically without reference to time, but is commonly used as what in English would be a past tense. So, the passage should read,

"I became in (on) the isle called Patmos for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ."

So, what John is doing here is explaining how he came to be on Patmos. There is no implied meaning that he was no longer there. Or still there, for that matter.

 

[DJT_47]

The phrase used is ἐγενόμην ἐν τῇ νήσῳ τῇ καλουμένῃ Πάτμῳ. "ἐγενόμην" is the first person second aorist middle deponent (phew!) form of "γίνομαι", which means "to become". The aorist form is technically without reference to time, but is commonly used as what in English would be a past tense. So, the passage should read,

"I became in (on) the isle called Patmos for the word of God, and for the testimony of Jesus Christ."

So, what John is doing here is explaining how he came to be on Patmos. There is no implied meaning that he was no longer there. Or still there, for that matter.

That might very well be (or not), but that still doesn't address Rev 10:11 which lends credence to my op position.

 

[Adrift]

Why does it matter? Just curious.

 

[DJT_47]

Why does it matter? Just curious.

It doesn't necessarily

 

[Wick Stick]

Why does it matter? Just curious.

There are some eschatological beliefs which would be disproved, depending on the when Revelation was written.

 

[DJT_47]

There are some eschatological beliefs which would be disproved, depending on the when Revelation was written.

Yes. When you look at the 3 John letters and Revelation, they are all supposedly written around the same time which is a pretty good stretch, and is indefinitive, covering a period before and after the fall of Jerusalem in 70 AD. For certain Revelation pertains to before the fall because John is told to go measure the temple in Rev11:1, so if it was destroyed, he would not have been casually told to do that unless a 3rd temple were to be built, which is questionable at best; but, does some of Revelation also cover end times? The intent of my OP was not to cover that or get into that topic at all which is a highly controversial one.