I've been discussing this passage from Romans 5 which a poster believes indicates Adam's "guilt" is passed down to us, his offspring. I think this is a semantics issue, since the idea is that condemnation, judgment, or death is passed down to future generations of mankind from Adam--it is not necessarily Adam's own "guilt" being passed down. Though this seems like splitting hairs, I do think the language needs to be properly understood or God may seem to be judging mankind for sins that another has done! Here was my response....
Do you understand the distinction I've been trying to make between the transfer of Adam's Sin Nature to his offspring and your claim that Adam's "guilt" is imputed to his offspring? I've repeated this regularly, and you don't seem to touch on that point precisely? Are you saying that the "judgment that has come to all men through Adam" is equal to the "guilt" of Adam, as if his "guilt" has been passed onto, or imputed to, all men?
...Here, Paul makes it unmistakably clear that "judgment" has been passed on from Adam's Sin to the sins of all men. But does that necessarily mean that Adam's "guilt" has been passed on from him to his offspring? I don't think so.
In fact, the passage seems to say just the opposite, that Adam's sin is his own, that it is "one man's offense" merely impacting others, not as if it is their offenses too but that his "one offense" has impacted future generations in terms of "judgment."
And I've added to that that Adam's Sin has caused the "Sin Nature" to be transferred on to future generations, a direct cause of this judgment. That is the implication of the passage, that Sin causes death, and that the 1st Sin leads to the Sin Nature in all, leading to their death, as well. So, it really boils down to how we view this verse....
Rom 5.18 Consequently, just as one trespass [and not the trespass of others] resulted in condemnation [and not guilt] for all people, so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people. 19 For just as through the disobedience of the one man [and not the disobedience of all people] the many were made sinners [and received a Sin Nature], so also through the obedience of the one man [and not the obedience of all people] the many will be made righteous.
(The words with the brackets are not part of the quote, but my added comments.) This is why Paul contrasts and distinguishes between Adam and Christ, because in Adam the Sin Nature is transferred because there is collective guilt, primarily because all have their own sins that they are responsible for. But in Christ Righteousness is transferred to others when the merit is exclusively belonging to Christ.
The real question here seems to be: Does the "condemnation" or judgment for all people, which has been passed down to them from Adam, mean that "guilt" has been transferred or imputed upon all people from Adam to his offspring? I don't think so. This is what separates the effect of Adam's sin from the effect of Christ's righteousness--all men are held accountable for their own sins, whereas in Christ the sins of all men are not being held to account.
I think that the judgment that has come down upon all of mankind as a result of Adam's Sin indicates that condemnation has come down upon Adam's offspring as a result of their own sins, but not judgment for the one sin of Adam. It appears to be a semantics issue.
One man's own guilt has resulted in the guilt that exclusively belongs to others who have inherited a like sinful nature. Each is responsible for his own sin. Guilt belongs only to those who themselves commit sins.
Do you understand the distinction I've been trying to make between the transfer of Adam's Sin Nature to his offspring and your claim that Adam's "guilt" is imputed to his offspring? I've repeated this regularly, and you don't seem to touch on that point precisely? Are you saying that the "judgment that has come to all men through Adam" is equal to the "guilt" of Adam, as if his "guilt" has been passed onto, or imputed to, all men?
...Here, Paul makes it unmistakably clear that "judgment" has been passed on from Adam's Sin to the sins of all men. But does that necessarily mean that Adam's "guilt" has been passed on from him to his offspring? I don't think so.
In fact, the passage seems to say just the opposite, that Adam's sin is his own, that it is "one man's offense" merely impacting others, not as if it is their offenses too but that his "one offense" has impacted future generations in terms of "judgment."
And I've added to that that Adam's Sin has caused the "Sin Nature" to be transferred on to future generations, a direct cause of this judgment. That is the implication of the passage, that Sin causes death, and that the 1st Sin leads to the Sin Nature in all, leading to their death, as well. So, it really boils down to how we view this verse....
Rom 5.18 Consequently, just as one trespass [and not the trespass of others] resulted in condemnation [and not guilt] for all people, so also one righteous act resulted in justification and life for all people. 19 For just as through the disobedience of the one man [and not the disobedience of all people] the many were made sinners [and received a Sin Nature], so also through the obedience of the one man [and not the obedience of all people] the many will be made righteous.
(The words with the brackets are not part of the quote, but my added comments.) This is why Paul contrasts and distinguishes between Adam and Christ, because in Adam the Sin Nature is transferred because there is collective guilt, primarily because all have their own sins that they are responsible for. But in Christ Righteousness is transferred to others when the merit is exclusively belonging to Christ.
The real question here seems to be: Does the "condemnation" or judgment for all people, which has been passed down to them from Adam, mean that "guilt" has been transferred or imputed upon all people from Adam to his offspring? I don't think so. This is what separates the effect of Adam's sin from the effect of Christ's righteousness--all men are held accountable for their own sins, whereas in Christ the sins of all men are not being held to account.
I think that the judgment that has come down upon all of mankind as a result of Adam's Sin indicates that condemnation has come down upon Adam's offspring as a result of their own sins, but not judgment for the one sin of Adam. It appears to be a semantics issue.
One man's own guilt has resulted in the guilt that exclusively belongs to others who have inherited a like sinful nature. Each is responsible for his own sin. Guilt belongs only to those who themselves commit sins.
