Does the Church still possess miraculous gifts today?

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Wormwood

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Read Acts 2:11 to see what was going on. The apostles were praising God but the Holy Spirit was also letting the God-fearing Jews hear these Praises in their own language. This is not what Paul is dealing with in First Corinthians 14. The type of tongues that is depicted in several places in Acts is the language of praise and worship. It is used by Spirit-filled Christians all the time in their private worship. Paul instructed that it should not be used in public worship but should be accompanied by interpretation. Mine is not to reason why, I just follow it Paul teaches. I speak in tongues all the time or a lot of the time in my prayer language.
I have read it many times. The Apostles were praising God in foreign languages that happened to be the native languages of many who were standing by. This caused the unbelievers in the midst to take note and wonder what was going on. This is exactly what Paul describes in 1 Cor. 14. People are speaking in a language they had never learned. However, many in their midst did not know the foreign language and therefore if there was no gift of interpretation, the person was supposed to remain silent, or simply praise God alone and edify themselves. This is precisely why Paul says that the gift of tongues "is a sign to unbelievers." How could it be a sign to unbelievers if it is merely a personal prayer language that no one understands without a supernatural gift?

That's not my experience, but I understand what you're saying. If you've never seen it done spontaneously then it's hard for you to think that it can be. I think what Peter experienced in Acts 10 is a good indication that it is definitely spontaneous, but I'm also sure that the people Paul was addressing in First Corinthians 14 had some teaching on the matter before this problem actually arose.
Yes, it is possible he taught them on the issue and we just do not have record of it. I just feel like God would give us instruction on attempting such gifts if such efforts and teaching was necessary to possess the gifts in the first place. But I could be wrong. :) It would sure save a lot of debate if the Spirit just decided to do some Acts 10 work on a bunch of cessationist churches. Haha.
 

KingJ

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StanJ said:
1. Address if they weren't applicable, and if you're going to use scripture you have to show how they actually apply, that's called exegesis.
2. So you admit that you used Matthew 10 to obfuscate or deflect from the issue?
3. You actually have to say something about it in order to debunk someone else. Just opining about your continued point of view is not debunking.
I'd be more than happy for you to challenge me but so far you have failed to do so and just keep reiterating the same old opinion. Put some support behind it or move on.
4. You fail to understand the story of Samson obviously. His power was not on call, his power was from God. The fact that he was a Nazarite was not where his power came from what was part and parcel of his dedication to God. The fact also is that Samson really didn't understand where his power came from and thought, based on his religious practices, that it came from his hair. God showed him in the end, where his power actually came from God. Sadly, he had to die to find that out.
5. Does it matter to you? Do you have to mentally assent to the validity of the command before you follow it?
6. You're the one who framed all the questions and ask them so ask yourself. Pointing out reality is not a matter of being insulted and I definitely don't evade anything unlike you in actually addressing this question with nothing.
1. :blink:
2. You cherry picked vs8.
3. Still not adressing what was said.
4. The point was that Samson could lift 200kgs anytime of the day.
5. We can't just read scripture as is. We need to always try grasp what is being said.
6. You definitely evade and obfuscate.
 

KingJ

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StanJ said:
Obedience is obedience, it's plain and simple and it doesn't imply that anybody is leaving a door open for obedience to be a miraculous gift of healing. You're not the judge of what is unnecessary pressure, God decides what he wants us to do in our lives and he is the one who knows all. It sounds to me like you personally have never experienced any miracles in your life and you're feeling guilty about it or at the very least self-conscious?
Your continued attempt to try and associate Miracles with magic is a very disturbing trend and I would caution you to not push it too far otherwise you may reap something you may not want to. You have been shown that the Bible clearly condemns Magic.

Nobody on this thread just now is having a problem with grasping what miracles are accept you. You're the one that continues to assert that Miracles are magic. Miracles are events that happen by the intervention of God they would not normally happen. Basic high school understanding or even grade school if you ask me so I'm not really sure why you continue to harp on this when everybody here understands, except for it seems your self?
I don't know what is so confusing. I am not calling the miracles of God magic. Please re-read post # 149, 175, 189 and 193 http://www.christianityboard.com/topic/22445-missing-from-bible/page-7.
 

KingJ

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Wormwood said:
Yes, it is possible he taught them on the issue and we just do not have record of it. I just feel like God would give us instruction on attempting such gifts if such efforts and teaching was necessary to possess the gifts in the first place. But I could be wrong. :) It would sure save a lot of debate if the Spirit just decided to do some Acts 10 work on a bunch of cessationist churches. Haha.
I doubt the underlined. I have never encountered a cessationist who is at the extreme in believing 100% cessation of gifts. But we have all encountered the extreme of the opposite ^_^.
 

StanJ

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Wormwood said:
I have read it many times. The Apostles were praising God in foreign languages that happened to be the native languages of many who were standing by. This caused the unbelievers in the midst to take note and wonder what was going on. This is exactly what Paul describes in 1 Cor. 14. People are speaking in a language they had never learned. However, many in their midst did not know the foreign language and therefore if there was no gift of interpretation, the person was supposed to remain silent, or simply praise God alone and edify themselves. This is precisely why Paul says that the gift of tongues "is a sign to unbelievers." How could it be a sign to unbelievers if it is merely a personal prayer language that no one understands without a supernatural gift?
No, the apostles were speaking in new tongues or unknown tongues they weren't speaking in the tongues that those God-fearing Jews heard and knew. The miracle was that the Holy Spirit made those people hear their own tongues because each of them heard all the apostles speak in their own tongues. There were 12 Apostles and over 15 identified groups of languages there so obviously they weren't all speaking the same language at the same time. Jesus the prophecy was that men would speak in new tongues and that meant times that it never before in history been heard. What Paul is talking about in 1st cor 14 is the gift of tongues which is not the same thing as the prayer language of tongues. As Paul said he wished that all people would speak in tongues as much as he did but that does not mean that all the time she spoke were in the context of what he was addressing in 1st cor 14.

Wormwood said:
Yes, it is possible he taught them on the issue and we just do not have record of it. I just feel like God would give us instruction on attempting such gifts if such efforts and teaching was necessary to possess the gifts in the first place. But I could be wrong. :) It would sure save a lot of debate if the Spirit just decided to do some Acts 10 work on a bunch of cessationist churches. Haha.
The apostolic age was of course a special time when God had given Jesus the authority to teach and Jesus had passed along that authority to his Apostles to teach. In my opinion God did give us enough instructions on how to do this in our present New Testament which of course the early church did not have and this required the Hands-On teaching of the Apostles.
Now wouldn't that be a kick in the pants if that actually happened in a cessationist church! :p
 

StanJ

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KingJ said:
1. :blink:
2. You cherry picked vs8.
3. Still not adressing what was said.
4. The point was that Samson could lift 200kgs anytime of the day.
5. We can't just read scripture as is. We need to always try grasp what is being said.
6. You definitely evade and obfuscate.
1. I understand you are confused, but only because you have to big an investment in your own opinion.
2. No actually you just admitted it and I gave you an example of how it was. Are you paying attention?
3. I did address it I told you to actually say something if you want to hear something.
4. No, the point was that Samson didn't really know where his powers came from until he died.
5. You are right, it's called context and exegesis. You should try it sometime.
6. That's like the little kid in a schoolyard saying; 'I know you are but what am I?' Try acting and responding like a mature adult KJ.
 

Wormwood

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No, the apostles were speaking in new tongues or unknown tongues they weren't speaking in the tongues that those God-fearing Jews heard and knew. The miracle was that the Holy Spirit made those people hear their own tongues because each of them heard all the apostles speak in their own tongues. There were 12 Apostles and over 15 identified groups of languages there so obviously they weren't all speaking the same language at the same time. Jesus the prophecy was that men would speak in new tongues and that meant times that it never before in history been heard. What Paul is talking about in 1st cor 14 is the gift of tongues which is not the same thing as the prayer language of tongues. As Paul said he wished that all people would speak in tongues as much as he did but that does not mean that all the time she spoke were in the context of what he was addressing in 1st cor 14.
I have to disagree. It never says the tongues only fell on the Apostles. The women and the brothers of Jesus were also there in the upper room. Look at the comparison between what Paul describes and what we see in Acts 2...



“All of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them.” (Acts 2:4, NIV84)


“Undoubtedly there are all sorts of languages in the world, yet none of them is without meaning. If then I do not grasp the meaning of what someone is saying, I am a foreigner to the speaker, and he is a foreigner to me.” (1 Corinthians 14:10–11, NIV84)

It seems evident to me that the miracle was "speaking" not hearing. The gift of "tongues" fell on the people in the upper room and they were able to "speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them." It says nothing about Spirit enabling hearing on the part of the audience, but rather the speaking in other languages by the speakers.


“When they heard this sound, a crowd came together in bewilderment, because each one heard them speaking in his own language. Utterly amazed, they asked: “Are not all these men who are speaking Galileans? Then how is it that each of us hears them in his own native language?” (Acts 2:6–8, NIV84)

“Tongues, then, are a sign, not for believers but for unbelievers; prophecy, however, is for believers, not for unbelievers.” (1 Corinthians 14:22, NIV84)
Paul makes it very clear that this gift of tongues was not a "prayer language for the believer" as you are asserting. Paul tells us the purpose of tongues is to be a "sign" for unbelievers. Of course, the gift was used as a means of edifying the individual, but its purpose was to be a sign to unbelievers. How could a personal prayer language be a "sign to unbelievers"? Yet, Acts shows us clearly what Paul means. This gift was used as an individual praised God, unbelievers would hear the praises of God in their own language and marvel. The gift was not primarily for building up the church, but for drawing the attention of those outside the church. Inside the church, Paul encouraged the believers to prophesy.



“(both Jews and converts to Judaism); Cretans and Arabs—we hear them declaring the wonders of God in our own tongues!”” (Acts 2:11, NIV84)


“For anyone who speaks in a tongue does not speak to men but to God. Indeed, no one understands him; he utters mysteries with his spirit.” (1 Corinthians 14:2, NIV84)



Finally, in the quote below we see again that the person speaking in tongues did not know the language they were speaking. It was a supernatural gift and so they were able to speak in foreign languages without knowledge of those languages. That language was given to them as praising God for his "wonders." Thus, the individual is speaking to God, not to men. The person speaking is "uttering mysteries in his spirit" because he does not know the language, but unbelievers hear the praise to God and it is a sign to them.

Thus, we see that 1 Cor. 14 is an exact description of Acts 2. There is no justification (in my mind) for arguing two types of gifts of tongues. Paul never says there are two gifts of tongues. He never lists tongues twice or distinguishes between the two types of gifts. Also, the exact same word for tongues is used in both accounts. Thus, one can only infer that there is one gift...especially since the narrative description and the teaching in the epistle line up so well.
 

StanJ

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Wormwood said:
I have to disagree. It never says the tongues only fell on the Apostles. The women and the brothers of Jesus were also there in the upper room. Look at the comparison between what Paul describes and what we see in Acts 2...
It does if you read it properly. Verse 1 in chapter 2 refers to verse 26 in chapter 1. They are the Apostles, plus verse 7 + 14 in chapter 2 both show that the God-fearing Jews were only hearing the Apostles. Not all of Jesus's followers were men and Galilean. Also Mounce translates the beginning of verse 15 as 'these men', unlike some gender-friendly translations that translates as 'these people'. In my opinion the context supports Mounces translation.

Wormwood said:
It seems evident to me that the miracle was "speaking" not hearing. The gift of "tongues" fell on the people in the upper room and they were able to "speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them." It says nothing about Spirit enabling hearing on the part of the audience, but rather the speaking in other languages by the speakers.

You have to take this in context where everything about tongues is talked about in the New Testament, especially in Mark 16:17. You are not alone In not recognizing this. I thought that for years until I actually studied this and realized that it was only the 12 initially that receive the baptism of the holy spirit because that is who Jesus instructed to wait, and that Acts 2 does not say they spoke in different times but only but the God-fearing Jews heard their own tongue. Now as there were only 12 speaking it would be impossible for the 12 to be speaking in 15 actual languages. If there was 12, as some assume based on the miss-translation of verse 1 in the past, it would be impossible to pick out only their languages from all those voices. Regardless of which you subscribe to the hearing was based on what the Holy Spirit allowed, not with what the people spoke. One point also needs to be considered in that these men knew the apostles were all Galilean and should be speaking with a Galilean accent and yet we're amazed that they heard their own languages without a Galilean accent.

Wormwood said:
Paul makes it very clear that this gift of tongues was not a "prayer language for the believer" as you are asserting. Paul tells us the purpose of tongues is to be a "sign" for unbelievers. Of course, the gift was used as a means of edifying the individual, but its purpose was to be a sign to unbelievers. How could a personal prayer language be a "sign to unbelievers"? Yet, Acts shows us clearly what Paul means. This gift was used as an individual praised God, unbelievers would hear the praises of God in their own language and marvel. The gift was not primarily for building up the church, but for drawing the attention of those outside the church. Inside the church, Paul encouraged the believers to prophesy.
Actually if you read what Paul says in 1st Corinthians 14 verses 18,19 + 28, you will see that Paul does differentiate between publicly praying in tongues and privately praying in tongues. You must keep in mind that Paul is dealing with corporate worship here and not individual worship. Individual worship is not regulated anywhere in the New Testament. You will note that in the instances in Acts, where people are speaking in tongues, it is after being baptized in the Holy Spirit and not being in a corporate/congregational setting. Here Paul is trying to establish order in the corporate / congregational environment.

Wormwood said:
Finally, in the quote below we see again that the person speaking in tongues did not know the language they were speaking. It was a supernatural gift and so they were able to speak in foreign languages without knowledge of those languages. That language was given to them as praising God for his "wonders." Thus, the individual is speaking to God, not to men. The person speaking is "uttering mysteries in his spirit" because he does not know the language, but unbelievers hear the praise to God and it is a sign to them.
That's right, people speaking in tongues did not know what they were saying and thus the requirement for interpretation in the corporate setting. Are you assuming that they translated everything into English? Sorry, ;), but in all seriousness they would have only interpreted the tongues in Greek or Hebrew. I would also have to assume that those coming into the congregational setting would be fluent in Greek or Hebrew. Greek or Hebrew would not be another tongue for people speaking in tongues. Just as today people don't speak in English for English-speaking people coming into the congregation and less it is an actual prophecy. English is not considered tongues even if one is not speaking in their mother tongue. We need to stop looking at things from a typically or a singularly English prospective and look at it from the perspective of what was going on then in the churches of Paul's day.

Wormwood said:
Thus, we see that 1 Cor. 14 is an exact description of Acts 2. There is no justification (in my mind) for arguing two types of gifts of tongues. Paul never says there are two gifts of tongues. He never lists tongues twice or distinguishes between the two types of gifts. Also, the exact same word for tongues is used in both accounts. Thus, one can only infer that there is one gift...especially since the narrative description and the teaching in the epistle line up so well.
I think I've given you just about all the justification you need to love to show you the proper perspective of what Paul is speaking about in First Corinthians 14. As Paul was indeed present when people spoken tongues upon receiving the Holy Spirit an Acts, and he makes no mention of this issue in those scenarios then, it is obvious that the difference is one of corporate setting vs non-corporate setting. It's about order in a congregational environment that must be maintained in order for God and the Holy Spirit to be effective. As Paul said God is the God of Order.
As far as lining up is concerned, that is only from your perspective. Hopefully I have realigned your vision? :)
 

KingJ

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1. Stan, do you know anyone who has the gift of healing?

If so, can you please just tell me the area in which they live. I want to Google how many sick are in the nearby hospitals and lame beggars on street corners.

Most All healing preachers only heal at church where true gullible Christians flock to, looking for miracles, magic, signs and wonders.

2. Do you know at least two people who have the gift of speaking and interpreting tongues? I want to compare interpretations.
 

Wormwood

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It does if you read it properly. Verse 1 in chapter 2 refers to verse 26 in chapter 1. They are the Apostles, plus verse 7 + 14 in chapter 2 both show that the God-fearing Jews were only hearing the Apostles. Not all of Jesus's followers were men and Galilean. Also Mounce translates the beginning of verse 15 as 'these men', unlike some gender-friendly translations that translates as 'these people'. In my opinion the context supports Mounces translation.
I understand, and maybe that is correct. Maybe it is intended to be men only in that verse. Yet we see in the previous chapter there were plenty of men in the upper room. Not only do we have the disciples, but also the brothers of Jesus (which could be brothers and sisters), as well as at least Justus and Matthias (cf. 1:14, 23). Also, even if there were only 12 men speaking, it is possible that one of them spoke in more than one language. What is absolutely clear in the text is that the Spirit enabled them to speak in different tongues. It does not say, "the Spirit enabled them to hear in different languages." The miracle was in the speaking of tongues (languages). The text says this very clearly on two occasions.

Sorry, ;), but in all seriousness they would have only interpreted the tongues in Greek or Hebrew. I would also have to assume that those coming into the congregational setting would be fluent in Greek or Hebrew. Greek or Hebrew would not be another tongue for people speaking in tongues. Just as today people don't speak in English for English-speaking people coming into the congregation and less it is an actual prophecy. English is not considered tongues even if one is not speaking in their mother tongue. We need to stop looking at things from a typically or a singularly English prospective and look at it from the perspective of what was going on then in the churches of Paul's day.
:) I am not sure I follow you entirely so let me clarify my thoughts a little. English is a language. Tongues in Greek simply means "languages." I agree with you that someone speaking in their native language would not be considered using the "gift" of tongues. Tongues was a supernatural gift that allowed someone to speak in a language they had never learned. English could be the "gift" of tongues if the person speaking English had never spoken in English before and never learned the language, but was able to miraculously declare the wonders of God in English.

So, if there is a group of people gathering to worship God in Corinth, and someone stands up and starts speaking the praises of God in German, the speaker doesn't know what he is saying, and unless there is a person in the group that is from that region, no one would understand the language. They would just sit and listen to someone babble on in a language they had never learned, especially if someone isnt given the gift of interpreting German (or is a native German speaker). Paul basically says, "This isnt helping anyone. Yeah, its neat you have a supernatural gift and can be encouraged in your spirit that you are speaking a language you never learned (even though you do not understand it yourself). So, try to seek and use gifts in the gathering of believers that will teach, admonish and convict. The gift of tongues is used as a sign to unbelievers who hear the praises of God in their native tongues which grabs their attention and causes them to wonder what is going on. However, if everyone is speaking in various languages and no one there understands what is being said, outsiders will just conclude that you all have lost your minds."

So, to summarize, in the ancient world, there were lots of different dialects and people spoke their native tongue amongst their own people, but the common tongue was Greek. This is why, when Paul speaks in Aramaic to the crowd in Acts, his Jewish brothers stop and take note (cf. Acts. 22:2). They recognize he is one of them and their native language grabs their attention. This would have been true of people from all different regions. It would be like an unbeliever from japan coming to visit your church and someone stands up and starts declaring the wonders of God in japanese. This would immediately grab the person's attention and make them feel like they belong.

Here is another important note about tongues. Understand that in the beginning, everyone spoke one language. When mankind began to become arrogant and strive toward independance from God, God confused their language (babal..were we get "Babylon"). God scattered people and made them break apart to twart their efforts because "nothing will be impossible for them." In Acts, we see God undoing, in a sense, what he did in Genesis by confusing speech. Rather than scattering people, he begins to gather people. We see that due to the work of Christ the sin and curse that broke people apart (creating dividing walls of hostility) was being removed and God was pouring out His Spirit on "all flesh." All tribes and tongues were now welcome and the gift of tongues powerfully displayed this reality.

Making the gift a personal prayer language misses what the Holy Spirit was doing here and the "sign" that this gift was understood to be by the early Christians. Again, a person speaking in unintelligible utterances as their own personal prayers would never be a "sign to unbelievers." How could that be the case?
 

StanJ

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Wormwood said:
I understand, and maybe that is correct. Maybe it is intended to be men only in that verse. Yet we see in the previous chapter there were plenty of men in the upper room. Not only do we have the disciples, but also the brothers of Jesus (which could be brothers and sisters), as well as at least Justus and Matthias (cf. 1:14, 23). Also, even if there were only 12 men speaking, it is possible that one of them spoke in more than one language. What is absolutely clear in the text is that the Spirit enabled them to speak in different tongues. It does not say, "the Spirit enabled them to hear in different languages." The miracle was in the speaking of tongues (languages). The text says this very clearly on two occasions.
Yes in chapter one there are several demarcations which indicate different times or days. Verses 15 to 22 indicate the time that Peter stood up amongst all the Believers which were numbered at 120. Verses 23 to 26 indicate when the 11 got together to cast lots. Verse 26 ends with "added to the 11", and verse 1 in the next chapter begins with "they were gathered together", the 'they' are the 11 in the previous verse 26, that's the only way it can be properly read using proper grammatical rules.
That is not what the men said about hearing their languages. They said each of us hears them in our own language. So obviously they had to be talking to one another about what they were hearing and it is obvious that they weren't talking to one another in their native language but in Hebrew. That would have been the common language of the day. Now that doesn't mean that all the God-fearing Jews spoke a different language. Some of their mother tongues we're obviously Hebrew so you're not advocating that the ones who only understand Hebrew where actually hearing some men praising God in Hebrew? You have to think about this WW. Peter got up and spoke to all the men and obviously he spoke in one language which was Hebrew. What it does say is that they spoke in tongues as the spirit enable them. They spoke in tongues. It doesn't say what kind, it just says tongues. You are assuming that means languages they didn't know. That is not what this scripture states nor is it what Jesus taught when he said that people would speak in new tongues. You assume that the miracle was not that the apostles spoke in 15 different languages when in fact verse 8 states; "Then how is it that each of us hears them in our native language?"


Wormwood said:
:) I am not sure I follow you entirely so let me clarify my thoughts a little. English is a language. Tongues in Greek simply means "languages." I agree with you that someone speaking in their native language would not be considered using the "gift" of tongues. Tongues was a supernatural gift that allowed someone to speak in a language they had never learned. English could be the "gift" of tongues if the person speaking English had never spoken in English before and never learned the language, but was able to miraculously declare the wonders of God in English.
Actually I think you do follow me but you're just not willing to accept what your subconscious is telling you is real. I've stated several times Jesus prophesied that they would speak in new tongues not just other tongues. The fact that Luke records that those were 'other tongues', means he didn't understand them either, but it does not mean that it wasn't new tongues. The point is as it applies today, a person going into an English church would not be speaking in German times and then interpreting it into English. The tongues referred to is commonly known today as glossolalia. It is a new / Heavenly language referred to in 1st Corinthians 13 as the tongues of angels. Now we know Angels don't speak in heaven because God communicates telepathically if you will and not verbally so the inference it's a language that could only be understood spiritually. As far as your attempted explanation of English is concerned, HOW exactly would that ever take place in a real world scenario?

Wormwood said:
So, if there is a group of people gathering to worship God in Corinth, and someone stands up and starts speaking the praises of God in German, the speaker doesn't know what he is saying, and unless there is a person in the group that is from that region, no one would understand the language. They would just sit and listen to someone babble on in a language they had never learned, especially if someone isnt given the gift of interpreting German (or is a native German speaker). Paul basically says, "This isnt helping anyone. Yeah, its neat you have a supernatural gift and can be encouraged in your spirit that you are speaking a language you never learned (even though you do not understand it yourself). So, try to seek and use gifts in the gathering of believers that will teach, admonish and convict. The gift of tongues is used as a sign to unbelievers who hear the praises of God in their native tongues which grabs their attention and causes them to wonder what is going on. However, if everyone is speaking in various languages and no one there understands what is being said, outsiders will just conclude that you all have lost your minds."
LOL....you're getting desperate now WW. Bottom line is that 'tongues', new or other, is a manifestation of our spirit praising God as Paul says in 1 Cor 14.
The gift is the interpretation, otherwise we are to pray in tongues quietly to ourselves just as we would in English.

Wormwood said:
So, to summarize, in the ancient world, there were lots of different dialects and people spoke their native tongue amongst their own people, but the common tongue was Greek. This is why, when Paul speaks in Aramaic to the crowd in Acts, his Jewish brothers stop and take note (cf. Acts. 22:2). They recognize he is one of them and their native language grabs their attention. This would have been true of people from all different regions. It would be like an unbeliever from japan coming to visit your church and someone stands up and starts declaring the wonders of God in japanese. This would immediately grab the person's attention and make them feel like they belong.
Here is another important note about tongues. Understand that in the beginning, everyone spoke one language. When mankind began to become arrogant and strive toward independance from God, God confused their language (babal..were we get "Babylon"). God scattered people and made them break apart to twart their efforts because "nothing will be impossible for them." In Acts, we see God undoing, in a sense, what he did in Genesis by confusing speech. Rather than scattering people, he begins to gather people. We see that due to the work of Christ the sin and curse that broke people apart (creating dividing walls of hostility) was being removed and God was pouring out His Spirit on "all flesh." All tribes and tongues were now welcome and the gift of tongues powerfully displayed this reality.
Your examples make no sense WW. A Japanese person would not go to an English church without knowing some English because he would expect English. If he did hear tongues with the English interpretation then he would understand it which is exactly the point that Paul was trying to make. Tongues is NOT understood by anyone in the corporate setting, which is why Paul instructs that it be interpreted or not spoken out loud. You are using your assumption of what transpired in Act 2:4, to state that people who speak in tongues are speaking other known languages and that is definitely not the case.

Wormwood said:
Making the gift a personal prayer language misses what the Holy Spirit was doing here and the "sign" that this gift was understood to be by the early Christians. Again, a person speaking in unintelligible utterances as their own personal prayers would never be a "sign to unbelievers." How could that be the case?
And again the gift is the interpretation not the ability to speak in tongues. Once a person receives the Holy Spirit and speaks in tongues he's able to exercise that ability whenever he so chooses. The whole point of 1 Cor 14 is to bring order to the ability that everyone who has had the infilling of the Holy Spirit has.
The sign to the believers is the interpretation in the language that they will understand. You assume that in Paul's case the language of the tongues was in a language that existed that day which makes no sense because the majority of the people that would attend those corporate worship times would be the same people who spoke the language of the believers that were there. You're trying to tell us that the believers to exercise the gift of speaking in tongues with interpretation spoke in a language that nobody there understood? No offense, but you're definitely not getting it.
 

Wormwood

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Verses 23 to 26 indicate when the 11 got together to cast lots. Verse 26 ends with "added to the 11", and verse 1 in the next chapter begins with "they were gathered together", the 'they' are the 11 in the previous verse 26, that's the only way it can be properly read using proper grammatical rules.
Well, I would disagree with the grammatical rules you are citing here. Neither the English or Greek are so concrete as you suggest. It is possible that the 12 Apostles is the antecedent to which "they" refers, but this is certainly ambiguous and many scholars believe it most likely is referring to the 120.

Who were the people gathered in the upper room? On whom did the Spirit descend? Was it the 120 mentioned in 1:15 or only the Twelve apostles? In 2:14 Luke mentioned only the Twelve, but there it probably was to connect them with Peter’s speech, which appealed to their special role as eyewitnesses to the resurrection (2:32). The presence of the large crowd testifying to the witness of the Spirit-filled Christians (2:6–11) would indicate that the full 120 were involved, as would the text Peter quoted from Joel that refers to women as well as men prophesying (2:17–18).

John B. Polhill, Acts, vol. 26, The New American Commentary (Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers, 1992), 97.
How many persons were together on the day of Pentecost? We expect that the number includes all the believers in the group of 120 (1:15).

Simon J. Kistemaker and William Hendriksen, Exposition of the Acts of the Apostles, vol. 17, New Testament Commentary (Grand Rapids: Baker Book House, 1953–2001), 75.
All the believers represents the Greek word all which may refer either to all the Christians or merely to all the apostles. Most translations choose to make this ambiguous, whereas the TEV has made it explicit, that is, the total Christian community.

Barclay Moon Newman and Eugene Albert Nida, A Handbook on the Acts of the Apostles, UBS Handbook Series (New York: United Bible Societies, 1972), 33.
So, it isnt clear and we should not be dogmatic about it. But, even if it does only refer to the Apostles, which is possible, there is nothing to say that one or two of them couldnt have spoken in more than one language.

Actually I think you do follow me but you're just not willing to accept what your subconscious is telling you is real.
Well, now that would make me a liar. I have no cause to lie about such matters. If I didnt want to accept what you were saying, I assure you I would have no problem telling you this. As you know, I dont have a problem disagreeing with people's views on various passages or doctrines :).

I've stated several times Jesus prophesied that they would speak in new tongues not just other tongues.
Ah, yes. I remember this discussion. We had a rather lengthy one about the word "new" here. I think the Greek is conclusive that the "new" tongues does not indicate that these were tongues that previously did not exist. I know you disagree with this, so there is probably no reason to rehash out that whole discussion.

As far as your attempted explanation of English is concerned, HOW exactly would that ever take place in a real world scenario?
Well, it would be just like what we see in Acts 2....just insert the language, "English." You should read the book, Brutchko. It is the story about a missionary who reaches to a violent unreached tribe of people. It is perhaps the best missionary book I have ever read...very inspiring. In any event, the author tells about a scenario where I believe a gift such as "tongues" occurred. One tribe that was converted went to another tribe and they did not speak the same language and the missionary feared bloodshed since the tribe would not know the cause of this other tribe's invasion of their territory. However, miraculously the tribe was able to understand perfectly in their own language what the tribe was saying about God.

This gift was miraculous. It was similar to the gift of healing and miracles. They were signs that opened the door for this new message to be proclaimed and believed (just as we read in Acts 2 & 1 Cor. 14:22. These signs validated the message...whether it was the sign of not being harmed by poisonous snakes, raising the dead, healing the lame or speaking in languages never learned. Could God give someone the gift of miracles today? I believe so. Does the Bible teach that such gifts have ceased? No, I do not think so. However, does the Holy Spirit continue to give gifts of miracle working to validate the message of the Gospel today? No, in most cases I do not think so. I believe that in most parts of the world the Gospel has been established so supernatural signs are no longer required. Now this is not to say God does not do miracles or answer prayers for healing and so forth. It is just to say that I dont think the "gift" of miracles, tongues and so forth is something the Spirit generally gives in our era. And, if He did give it, I dont think it would be because a person was coached in desiring it and trying it out. You can attempt to raise the dead all day long, but in the end, either the gift falls on you or it doesnt. No coaching or expectation is going to be the reason why someone has the ability to suddenly call the dead from the grave. Either the person has the gift to do miracles or they do not. The same is true, in my view, of tongues. The fact that the gift has to be coached and modeled for others to receive it which is why it only happens in certain denominations tells me that this is not the same thing we see in the New Testament.

LOL....you're getting desperate now WW. Bottom line is that 'tongues', new or other, is a manifestation of our spirit praising God as Paul says in 1 Cor 14.
I dont follow...really :) I am not lying. haha.

Your examples make no sense WW. A Japanese person would not go to an English church without knowing some English because he would expect English.
No, it makes perfect sense. Most Japanese people visiting America know English, but not very well. However, if they heard their native language spoken fluently by people who should not know their native language, it would cause them to perk up and take note. That is the point. Everyone in Acts 2 likely spoke Greek. It was the common tongue. However, the native languages were something that bound people together. The Hebrews, although forced to know and operate in Greek, still knew and spoke in Hebrew and Aramaic...and their Torah was in Hebrew. So, for someone to speak to them in Hebrew was endearing. When God gave the ability to speak in native tongues, He was essentially confirming that His Spirit now was reaching out to all nations, tribes and people. They felt an instant connection.

And again the gift is the interpretation not the ability to speak in tongues.

This doesnt make sense to me. If Paul, according to you, is describing a personal prayer language in 1 Cor. 14, how is that gift a "sign to unbelievers?" How would someone babbling something that no one understands for 5 minutes followed by Bob standing up and saying, "He says Jesus died for you and he loves you" be a "sign" to unbelievers? The unbeliever would simply say, "Um, I think you are just making stuff up. He said nothing but jibberish and you are pretending that jibberish had meaning. I am outta here." However, if the "tongues" was indeed the native language of someone who lived a thousand miles away hearing his home language by a group of foreigners in a completely unexpected setting....then yeah, it would be a sign.
 

Dan57

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No, imo the church does not maintain the miraculous gifts. These were given to the apostles and stopped at the end of the first century; "Truly the signs of an apostle were wrought among you in all patience, in signs, and wonders, and mighty deeds" (2 Corinthians 12:12). The miracles of healing were given as evidence to usher in the gospel, and once established via apostolic authority, the purpose of "confirming the word with signs following" (Mark 16:20) was met.

https://www.christiancourier.com/articles/5-what-does-the-bible-say-about-miracles
 

StanJ

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Wormwood said:
Well, I would disagree with the grammatical rules you are citing here. Neither the English or Greek are so concrete as you suggest. It is possible that the 12 Apostles is the antecedent to which "they" refers, but this is certainly ambiguous and many scholars believe it most likely is referring to the 120.
Course they are, grammatical rules are pretty much the same in any language. They to be identified has to read in accordance with who the last subject was referred to which in this case was the 11 and Matthias. Here are a few quotes for you;
they were all with one accord in one place] The best MSS. have they were all together in one place. Doubtless in the upper room where the Apostles abode, and where the disciples had met for the election of Matthias.
they were all with one accord in one place; in two ancient copies of Beza's, and in some others it is read, "all the apostles"; Matthias, and the eleven, with whom he was numbered, who are last spoken of, in Acts 1:26.
they were {b} all with one accord in one place; {b} The twelve apostles, who were to be the patriarchs as it were of the Church.
The problem is most commentators or commentaries don't really address this and seem to just pass by it. Going back to vs 14 and 15 in chapter 1 to get the context instead of the context that's already offered to in verse 26, is not proper exegesis. The following is the best I've read so far
Who Were "They"? There is some debate whom "they" refers to in this verse. Was it only the apostles mentioned in the previous verse Acts 1:26?. Or was it the 120 persons mentioned earlier (Acts 1:15).
Some cite the "rule of grammar" which may be stated as follows: The antecedent of a pronoun is the nearest previous agreeable noun. That would be "apostles". The Greek language in which Luke was writing does not always adhere to that rule however.
Others point out firstly that the pronoun is actually a phrase, "they all" which strongly suggests the whole group. Secondly, the prophecy Peter quoted as fulfilled, seems to require a larger group (Acts 2:16-18, Joel 2:28-29). Thirdly, another group of people later had the same thing happen to them and it happened to the entire group (Acts 10:24,33,44, Acts 11:15-17).
The best way to decide who they were who received the baptism of the Holy Spirit, is to go back to the beginning of chapter one. Jesus "gave orders to the apostles whom he had chosen" (Acts 1:2), and it was to them that he promised the baptism of the Holy Spirit and the consequent power (Acts 1:4-8).
Wormwood said:
Well, now that would make me a liar. I have no cause to lie about such matters. If I didnt want to accept what you were saying, I assure you I would have no problem telling you this. As you know, I dont have a problem disagreeing with people's views on various passages or doctrines :).
That was definitely not what I was implying. As I said it's more a issue of cognitive or subconscious revelation.

Wormwood said:
Ah, yes. I remember this discussion. We had a rather lengthy one about the word "new" here. I think the Greek is conclusive that the "new" tongues does not indicate that these were tongues that previously did not exist. I know you disagree with this, so there is probably no reason to rehash out that whole discussion.
Well apparently you don't remember at all because I gave you the meaning of 'new' in Greek. It's not much different in English, in that it refers to something that didn't exist before. καινός (kainos) connotes;
Strong: G2537
GK: G2785
new, recently made, Mt. 9:17; Mk. 2:22; new in species, character, or mode, Mt. 26:28, 29; Mk. 14:24, 25; Lk. 22:20; Jn. 13:34; 2 Cor. 5:17; Gal. 6:15; Eph. 2:15; 4:24; 1 Jn. 2:7; Rev. 3:12; novel, strange, Mk. 1:27; Acts 17:19; new to the possessor, Mk. 16:17; unheard of, unusual, Mk. 1:27; Acts 17:19; met. renovated, better, of higher excellence, 2 Cor. 5:17; Rev. 5:9.

Wormwood said:
Well, it would be just like what we see in Acts 2....just insert the language, "English." You should read the book, Brutchko. It is the story about a missionary who reaches to a violent unreached tribe of people. It is perhaps the best missionary book I have ever read...very inspiring. In any event, the author tells about a scenario where I believe a gift such as "tongues" occurred. One tribe that was converted went to another tribe and they did not speak the same language and the missionary feared bloodshed since the tribe would not know the cause of this other tribe's invasion of their territory. However, miraculously the tribe was able to understand perfectly in their own language what the tribe was saying about God.
That is indeed what happened in Acts chapter 2 but as I've already pointed out it wasn't the apostles that were speaking the language it was the Holy Spirit allowing the hearers to hear their own language. If you want to believe that every Apostle there kept on switching between one language and another in the at least fifteen languages that are itemized there, then I guess year faith is much stronger in you POV, than logic would dictate. Even more so given that you actually believe there were 120 people they were speaking in all these languages. Maybe you should try an experiment and get yourself into a room where at least 120 people are speaking 15 different languages, one of which is English, and see if you can discern it from however far away these men were from the apostles.

Wormwood said:
This gift was miraculous. It was similar to the gift of healing and miracles. They were signs that opened the door for this new message to be proclaimed and believed (just as we read in Acts 2 & 1 Cor. 14:22. These signs validated the message...whether it was the sign of not being harmed by poisonous snakes, raising the dead, healing the lame or speaking in languages never learned. Could God give someone the gift of miracles today? I believe so. Does the Bible teach that such gifts have ceased? No, I do not think so. However, does the Holy Spirit continue to give gifts of miracle working to validate the message of the Gospel today? No, in most cases I do not think so. I believe that in most parts of the world the Gospel has been established so supernatural signs are no longer required. Now this is not to say God does not do miracles or answer prayers for healing and so forth. It is just to say that I dont think the "gift" of miracles, tongues and so forth is something the Spirit generally gives in our era. And, if He did give it, I dont think it would be because a person was coached in desiring it and trying it out. You can attempt to raise the dead all day long, but in the end, either the gift falls on you or it doesnt. No coaching or expectation is going to be the reason why someone has the ability to suddenly call the dead from the grave. Either the person has the gift to do miracles or they do not. The same is true, in my view, of tongues. The fact that the gift has to be coached and modeled for others to receive it which is why it only happens in certain denominations tells me that this is not the same thing we see in the New Testament.
I'm really not sure what you're talking to here as you provide no context or quotation from me?

Wormwood said:
I dont follow...really :) I am not lying. haha.
Again, I'm not accusing you of lying so I suggest you reread what I said to which you responded here.

Wormwood said:
No, it makes perfect sense. Most Japanese people visiting America know English, but not very well. However, if they heard their native language spoken fluently by people who should not know their native language, it would cause them to perk up and take note. That is the point. Everyone in Acts 2 likely spoke Greek. It was the common tongue. However, the native languages were something that bound people together. The Hebrews, although forced to know and operate in Greek, still knew and spoke in Hebrew and Aramaic...and their Torah was in Hebrew. So, for someone to speak to them in Hebrew was endearing. When God gave the ability to speak in native tongues, He was essentially confirming that His Spirit now was reaching out to all nations, tribes and people. They felt an instant connection.
You're missing the point that in First Corinthians 14 Paul wasn't talking about exceptions he was talking about a rule. The rule would be that speaking in tongues was not to be understood by the majority of unbelievers that were there but it had to be interpreted and would be interpreted into probably Hebrew or Greek. That would represent the majority of people that were there. So obviously they weren't speaking in Hebrew and Greek if they had to interpret it into Hebrew or Greek. Your use of Japanese was really nothing more than a red herring which I knew, but tried to deal with you by Common Sense, which obviously didn't work. :)

Wormwood said:
This doesnt make sense to me. If Paul, according to you, is describing a personal prayer language in 1 Cor. 14, how is that gift a "sign to unbelievers?" How would someone babbling something that no one understands for 5 minutes followed by Bob standing up and saying, "He says Jesus died for you and he loves you" be a "sign" to unbelievers? The unbeliever would simply say, "Um, I think you are just making stuff up. He said nothing but jibberish and you are pretending that jibberish had meaning. I am outta here." However, if the "tongues" was indeed the native language of someone who lived a thousand miles away hearing his home language by a group of foreigners in a completely unexpected setting....then yeah, it would be a sign.
He's describing tongues, both as a gift that requires interpretation and as a personal prayer language. I'm pretty sure I made that clear so I don't understand why it doesn't make any sense for you unless of course you are so inculcated by your POV that you just can't accept it? Again please reread Paul here because you apparently are not understanding what he saying about tongues and interpretation. Tongues is not prophecy. Tongues is as Paul said it was an expression of praising and worshiping God. Yes it does need to be interpreted because the people coming in need to understand what is going on and by interpreting it they are understanding what the people are doing that are speaking in tongues. It sounds to me like you have never been in a service where these kind of gifts have been exercised? Is that right?
 

Wormwood

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Course they are, grammatical rules are pretty much the same in any language. They to be identified has to read in accordance with who the last subject was referred to which in this case was the 11 and Matthias. Here are a few quotes for you;
Yes, like I said, this is possible, but the pronouns do not always refer to the most immediate antecedent. Consider the following verse...

“Now Peter and John were going up to the temple at the hour of prayer, the ninth hour. And a man lame from birth was being carried, whom they laid daily at the gate of the temple that is called the Beautiful Gate to ask alms of those entering the temple.” (Acts 3:1–2, ESV)
According to you, grammar demands that "they" refers to "Peter and John" since this is the nearest possible antecedent, but clearly this makes no sense. Context has to define much of this for us. I think, when you look at the passage in question, then it is very probable that "they" refers to the 120 in Acts 2. “And they cast lots for them, and the lot fell on Matthias, and he was numbered with the eleven apostles. When the day of Pentecost arrived, they were all together in one place.” (Acts 1:26–2:1, ESV)

In my opinion, the "eleven apostles" is part of a secondary clause. The main focus of the sentence is the casting of lots and it falling on Matthias. If I were to diagram the sentence, it would look something like:

They| cast| lots
\
for them
and

the lot| fell
\
on Matthias
\
and - he|was numbered
\
among the twelve

So, "the twelve" is a parenthetical phrase describing the "numbered" whereas "They" is the primary subject which refers back to the 120. That is just my opinion and there are numerous commentators that see it the same way, but again, it is debatable. :)

Well apparently you don't remember at all because I gave you the meaning of 'new' in Greek. It's not much different in English, in that it refers to something that didn't exist before. καινός (kainos) connotes;
Yes, I remember, and I quoted about a dozen verses where kainos is used interchangeably with neos (such as "new covenant"). Moreover, I think the word kainos is used because it can refer to something novel, fresh, interesting or unusual. neos refers to something which did not previously exist.


3501. νέος néos; fem. néa, neut. néon, adj. New, recent. New in relation to time, that which has recently come into existence or become present.

Spiros Zodhiates, The Complete Word Study Dictionary: New Testament (Chattanooga, TN: AMG Publishers, 2000).

Either way, I dont think we want to hash this out again. :)

I'm really not sure what you're talking to here as you provide no context or quotation from me?
You had asked how I understood this gift to have worked in the real world. I was explaining that it was a supernatural gift that was used as a sign, rather than a personal gift used primarily for prayer.

You're missing the point that in First Corinthians 14 Paul wasn't talking about exceptions he was talking about a rule. The rule would be that speaking in tongues was not to be understood by the majority of unbelievers that were there but it had to be interpreted and would be interpreted into probably Hebrew or Greek. That would represent the majority of people that were there. So obviously they weren't speaking in Hebrew and Greek if they had to interpret it into Hebrew or Greek. Your use of Japanese was really nothing more than a red herring which I knew, but tried to deal with you by Common Sense, which obviously didn't work. :)
I do not follow you Stan. Please, in very simple terms explain to me how this prayer language could be a "sign" to unbelievers. If it is an unintelligible language that has to be interpreted via a supernatural gift...how is that a sign? I am just asking the question for understanding of your view, I am not trying to throw out red herrings.

He's describing tongues, both as a gift that requires interpretation and as a personal prayer language. I'm pretty sure I made that clear so I don't understand why it doesn't make any sense for you unless of course you are so inculcated by your POV that you just can't accept it? Again please reread Paul here because you apparently are not understanding what he saying about tongues and interpretation. Tongues is not prophecy. Tongues is as Paul said it was an expression of praising and worshiping God. Yes it does need to be interpreted because the people coming in need to understand what is going on and by interpreting it they are understanding what the people are doing that are speaking in tongues. It sounds to me like you have never been in a service where these kind of gifts have been exercised? Is that right?
Okay, here you try to describe it. Understand that it is not that I do not understand Paul (I think I do), I just do not understand how you understand Paul. That is what I am trying to uncover.

I have been in charismatic services, many of them actually. My wife belonged to a Vineyard church for many years and I attended with her often, both to church and to conferences. I have spoken at length with leaders in these movements about this issue. I know how they practice it and how they explain away Paul's prohibition from tongues being spoken in the public assembly without an interpreter. I just am not convinced by any of their arguments.

1. The Bible never speaks of more than one gift of tongues. It just doesnt.

2. The Bible never gives rationale for people speaking in tongues in the public assembly as we see in most charismatic circles. Rather, it condemns it.

3. Tongues is only to be used in the assembly if there is interpretation. The focus of the gift was to be a sign to unbelievers, but if used in the assembly it must be interpreted.

4. If tongues was prophetic when interpreted by an interpreter, then why would Paul tell people to seek prophecy rather than seek the gift of tongues interpretation? That is because tongues are not prophetic. They are praises to God in human languages, just as we see in Acts 2.

5. Someone babbling in an unintelligible, non-human language and having another person stand up and say they can interpret it would not be a "sign" to an unbeliever. If anything, the unbeliever would think to himself, "These people are crazy. That guy babbled jibberish and the other guy thinks its a spirit language he can interpret. Im outta here." I know, I have had unbelievers tell me this very thing!

6. Someone speaking in a unique native dialect of a foreigner in a supernatural way would be a sign. This is how Paul describes the gift of tongues in 1 Cor. 14 and exactly what we see in Acts 2. There is no need or rationale for arguing these are two different gifts with two different purposes.
 

StanJ

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Wormwood said:
Yes, like I said, this is possible, but the pronouns do not always refer to the most immediate antecedent. Consider the following verse...
According to you, grammar demands that "they" refers to "Peter and John" since this is the nearest possible antecedent, but clearly this makes no sense. Context has to define much of this for us. I think, when you look at the passage in question, then it is very probable that "they" refers to the 120 in Acts 2. “And they cast lots for them, and the lot fell on Matthias, and he was numbered with the eleven apostles. When the day of Pentecost arrived, they were all together in one place.” (Acts 1:26–2:1, ESV)
Using the ESV is not really going to support your point of view because the ESV is an old translation based on formal equivalence and doesn't really take into account the functional equivalence of a Modern English translation. The following is what the NIV translates it to, as does MOUNCE, and it is much more functionally equivalent then the ESV
One day Peter and John were going up to the temple at the time of prayer—at three in the afternoon. Now a man who was lame from birth was being carried to the temple gate called Beautiful, where he was put every day to beg from those going into the temple courts.

Part of the reason that we continue to have Modern English translations is because the older English translations didn't always conform to the grammatical rules that were in effect at the time not just those that are in effect today. In any advance the Greek itself conveys in its own grammar what I have been advocating.


Wormwood said:
In my opinion, the "eleven apostles" is part of a secondary clause. The main focus of the sentence is the casting of lots and it falling on Matthias. If I were to diagram the sentence, it would look something like:

They| cast| lots
\
for them
and

the lot| fell
\
on Matthias
\
and - he|was numbered
\
among the twelve

So, "the twelve" is a parenthetical phrase describing the "numbered" whereas "They" is the primary subject which refers back to the 120. That is just my opinion and there are numerous commentators that see it the same way, but again, it is debatable. :)
Of course it's debatable, isn't that what we're doing? ;)
I think if you look at chapter 1:21-25, the subject is the 12 apostles and Peter is saying 'us', twice in v22 in regards to the group that he ostensibly lead now and to whom he was speaking. Who do you think the 'they' is in verse 23 or 24 or 26?

Wormwood said:
Yes, I remember, and I quoted about a dozen verses where kainos is used interchangeably with neos (such as "new covenant"). Moreover, I think the word kainos is used because it can refer to something novel, fresh, interesting or unusual. neos refers to something which did not previously exist.
Nice try, but no....http://biblehub.com/greek/3501.htm
Neos has more to do with age than it does with existence. A baby is NEOS, fresh flowers are NEOS, and if NEOS was the proper Greek word, it would have been used for tongues.

Wormwood said:
You had asked how I understood this gift to have worked in the real world. I was explaining that it was a supernatural gift that was used as a sign, rather than a personal gift used primarily for prayer.
Ah, thanks. It is both comma and not necessarily something that is used primarily for prayer. I'm trying to make you see that one as a gift and when is a prayer language that both involve tongues. When does not have to interpret when one prays in tongues silently or to themselves. However in a corporate setting Paul instructs that if one is to speak in tongues overtly and publicly one is to interpret that. Now interpretation is not that one knows what one has said in tongues but that one believe that if they open their mouth God will fill it with the interpretation. That is why Paul said what he did. Do you think it is orderly for anybody to pray out loud in your church service regardless of what is going on at the time? It wouldn't matter what language the person was using if they're disturbing the order of the service or the flow of the spirit now would it?

Wormwood said:
I do not follow you Stan. Please, in very simple terms explain to me how this prayer language could be a "sign" to unbelievers. If it is an unintelligible language that has to be interpreted via a supernatural gift...how is that a sign? I am just asking the question for understanding of your view, I am not trying to throw out red herrings.
Really!? I've seen you use some fairly complicated concepts and language and you're telling me you're not following me? ;)
Anyway the point is that it's not the tongues that's a sign to unbelievers it's the interpretation thereof. Paul says tongues on its own is a disturbance and makes no sense to unbelievers which is why it is required that it be interpreted. The gift if you will is the interpretation not the tongues. The reason tongues is used is because it is only those people who have received the baptism of the Holy Spirit and have spoken in new tongues that exercise this gift. The whole point of 1st Corinthians 14 is summed up very nicely in the last two verses of that chapter.

Therefore, my brothers and sisters, be eager to prophesy, and do not forbid speaking in tongues. But everything should be done in a fitting and orderly way.

Wormwood said:
Okay, here you try to describe it. Understand that it is not that I do not understand Paul (I think I do), I just do not understand how you understand Paul. That is what I am trying to uncover.
I have been in charismatic services, many of them actually. My wife belonged to a Vineyard church for many years and I attended with her often, both to church and to conferences. I have spoken at length with leaders in these movements about this issue. I know how they practice it and how they explain away Paul's prohibition from tongues being spoken in the public assembly without an interpreter. I just am not convinced by any of their arguments.
Well part of the problem I think is that you probably have never spoken in tongues are received the in filling of the Holy Spirit? Am I right?
No offense, but being in a charismatic or Pentecostal service does not make one so, no more than being in a garage makes one a car. If you get my drift?
So what you're basically telling me here is that you understand the argument but just don't accept them? Is that correct? Because if I end up making the same arguments to you than I am effectively wasting my time am I not? Maybe you can tell me what will convince you?


Wormwood said:
1. The Bible never speaks of more than one gift of tongues. It just doesnt.

2. The Bible never gives rationale for people speaking in tongues in the public assembly as we see in most charismatic circles. Rather, it condemns it.

3. Tongues is only to be used in the assembly if there is interpretation. The focus of the gift was to be a sign to unbelievers, but if used in the assembly it must be interpreted.

4. If tongues was prophetic when interpreted by an interpreter, then why would Paul tell people to seek prophecy rather than seek the gift of tongues interpretation? That is because tongues are not prophetic. They are praises to God in human languages, just as we see in Acts 2.

5. Someone babbling in an unintelligible, non-human language and having another person stand up and say they can interpret it would not be a "sign" to an unbeliever. If anything, the unbeliever would think to himself, "These people are crazy. That guy babbled jibberish and the other guy thinks its a spirit language he can interpret. Im outta here." I know, I have had unbelievers tell me this very thing!

6. Someone speaking in a unique native dialect of a foreigner in a supernatural way would be a sign. This is how Paul describes the gift of tongues in 1 Cor. 14 and exactly what we see in Acts 2. There is no need or rationale for arguing these are two different gifts with two different purposes.
1. Yes that's right it only speaks of 'tongues' as the initial evidence of the in filling of the Holy Spirit. The gift in 1 For 14 is tongues WITH interpretation.

2. No, Paul condemns speaking in tongues ONLY, without interpretation and drawing attention to oneself. Praying in tongues as orderly worship is fine.

3. No, Paul states publicly, drawing attention to one's self, not privately to one's self. V28

4. Tongues is not prophetic. Where do you see that? It wasn't from me and you obviously understand what Paul said in this regard.

5. Pointing out exceptions and how others do it wrong doesn't support the contrary WW. This is nothing more than a personal bias not a question.

6. Again you're making a personal statement of bias not a statement of fact. Tongues is not an existing language. It is new, never before heard.
 

Wormwood

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Using the ESV is not really going to support your point of view because the ESV is an old translation based on formal equivalence and doesn't really take into account the functional equivalence of a Modern English translation. The following is what the NIV translates it to, as does MOUNCE, and it is much more functionally equivalent then the ESV
One day Peter and John were going up to the temple at the time of prayer—at three in the afternoon. Now a man who was lame from birth was being carried to the temple gate called Beautiful, where he was put every day to beg from those going into the temple courts.
You are missing the point, Stan. I am simply showing that in the English language, the nearest antecedent is not always used to identify the pronoun. That was the only point I was trying to make. We shouldnt be so quick to look at an English sentence and demand that the pronoun be identified by the nearest antecedent because English doesnt always work that way.

Of course it's debatable, isn't that what we're doing? ;)
So you're saying there's a chance? (insert Jim Carrey, Dumb and Dumber photo here) LOL

Neos has more to do with age than it does with existence.
But a "neonate" is one that just came into existence (newborn baby)...unless you agree with Joseph Smith and we preexist as disembodied spirit babies. LOL. I just conclude the word study on neos by saying, not one commentator or Greek scholar I have ever read has indicated that the word describing "new" tongues mandated that they be never before heard languages. Not one. You are going to have to cite some sources if you want me to accept this Greek argument from you....because no Greek teacher has ever made such an argument that I have heard and from what I know, you are not a Greek scholar. So where did you hear this argument?

Now interpretation is not that one knows what one has said in tongues but that one believe that if they open their mouth God will fill it with the interpretation.
I appreciate and understand your explanation. Maybe I just have a lack of faith on this issue, but I guess my question would be, "How would anyone know if they have the gift of interpretation? Couldn't they just be spewing nonsense in an effort to interpret the unintelligible?" I mean, why would Paul say not to speak in tongues unless someone has the gift of interpretation if the gift of interpretation is just any ol person standing up and saying the first thing that comes to their mind (and believing God is giving a right interpretation of something with no human meaning)? I guess that is an issue I wrestled with in my time with charismatics. There is an assumption everyone has these gifts and that the possession of these gifts is really about just standing up and saying whatever jumps into your mind...and I dont see Paul encouraging such things or indicating that this how these gifts work or are discovered.

It wouldn't matter what language the person was using if they're disturbing the order of the service or the flow of the spirit now would it?
No, but it wouldnt matter if someone actually had the gift of interpretation either, would it? Anyone can stand up and say anything and no one would know different. How could they? Faith, in this sense, becomes me believing that whatever I say is actually what God is saying. That is not "faith" as I see it defined in the Bible, and I find it to be a dangerous redefinition of the term.

Really!? I've seen you use some fairly complicated concepts and language and you're telling me you're not following me? ;)

Haha, I have good days and bad ones. :) I havent had my coffee yet. :)

Paul says tongues on its own is a disturbance and makes no sense to unbelievers which is why it is required that it be interpreted. The gift if you will is the interpretation not the tongues.
Ok, but try to understand where I am coming from. You say the real gift is interpretation, but as I point out above, how can anyone know? I mean, if tongues is unintelligible and the gift is expressed by faith in saying just whatever sounds pop into your head, and the interpretation, likewise, is the real edifying gift, but it also is just an act of faith that whatever thoughts pop into my head is the meaning of the unintelligible sounds that popped into the other guys head...then how do you know any of it is a "gift" at all. How is this evidence to unbelievers of anything? How do you know there arent thousands of people who are just making things up and attributing sounds and whatever thoughts/interpretations pop into their heads as words from God when in actuality they are just expressions of their own imaginations? I am not trying to be mean here, but cant you see how this lends itself to all kinds of abuse? And how can anyone provide correction or direction here when there is nothing to direct because none of this is intelligible or discernible? I just dont think expressing whatever thoughts or sounds come to your mind is how the Spirit works. Personally, I think such approaches to "gifts" are far to easily manipulated and I have seen them used very frequently as means of manipulation and often employed by selfish, attention seeking peoples (i.e. listen to me, I am God's mouthpiece). What I see in Acts are bonified signs that point to an Almighty God doing the miraculous, and what I have seen among charismatics in this regard is anything but that. I think most mean well, but I just dont see this as anything close to what was happening in Acts.

Well part of the problem I think is that you probably have never spoken in tongues are received the in filling of the Holy Spirit? Am I right?
Well, I think we would have a war over terms here.... I believe I was filled with the Holy Spirit when I submitted my life to Christ and was baptized. I dont think filling = unintelligible utterances nor does maturity and power = tongues. Paul never makes such links and I think it is highly unwise to do so. The Christians in Corinth were filled with selfishness and carnal thoughts and they spoke in tongues. They weren't "filled" with the Spirit (Paul says this plainly) because tongues is no such sign! Equating the two is a SERIOUS error among charismatics, imo.

I was promised by a charismatic teacher that God was going to give me the gift of tongues if I came forward at a rally. I did. He laid hands on me. Nothing happened. He tried to coax me into making sounds and falling down, but I was genuinely seeking God to do it in me, as he had promised. Eventually he said, "Well, God told me you will get the gift at a later time." Apparently God changed his mind when he told him I would receive it then if I came forward at that moment? I have been very open to this and had people lay hands on me and promise me such things, but to no avail. The more I have learned and seen these "gifts" in action and the more I have studied the Bible, the more I have seen that the two are not the same...and the former usually has zero value for spiritual maturity, being a sign to unbelievers or drawing people close to God. In fact, what I have seen in these movements and among Christians I have been close to who participate in them....there has be zero value from these activities in their lives. Many of them fell away from the faith, spent very little time in the Word and were often engaged in serious sin in their personal lives while putting on all kinds of spiritual displays when believers gathered. I am not saying its true of you and those you fellowship with...but that has been my experience.

6. Again you're making a personal statement of bias not a statement of fact. Tongues is not an existing language. It is new, never before heard.
None of this is "fact." All of it is an issue of interpretation and debate. I am just sharing my experiences and my views as well as why I hold to them.
 

KingJ

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StanJ said:
And again the gift is the interpretation not the ability to speak in tongues. Once a person receives the Holy Spirit and speaks in tongues he's able to exercise that ability whenever he so chooses.
I just want to repeat that I do believe in the gifts. Just not in there ''on hand readiness''. It is as and when God deems fit.

But with respect to this line. It just does not make sense Stan. Why would I want to speak in tongues right now and then have the Holy Spirit help me interpret it, if I can already speak in English? At least speaking in English leaves the oness of interpretation on God and not me increasing the risk of an incorrect interpretation.
 

StanJ

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Wormwood said:
You are missing the point, Stan. I am simply showing that in the English language, the nearest antecedent is not always used to identify the pronoun. That was the only point I was trying to make. We shouldnt be so quick to look at an English sentence and demand that the pronoun be identified by the nearest antecedent because English doesnt always work that way.
Not at all WW, the point is that a proper translation will not show what you indicated. I do have faith that the Greek when properly translated conveys the proper understanding, NOT the ESV. It is obviously not worth us continuing to dicker about it.

Wormwood said:
So you're saying there's a chance? (insert Jim Carrey, Dumb and Dumber photo here) LOL
I appreciate your humor, but deflecting and not answering my points is not how to do it. I think you see my rationale and how it works.

Wormwood said:
But a "neonate" is one that just came into existence (newborn baby)...unless you agree with Joseph Smith and we preexist as disembodied spirit babies. LOL. I just conclude the word study on neos by saying, not one commentator or Greek scholar I have ever read has indicated that the word describing "new" tongues mandated that they be never before heard languages. Not one. You are going to have to cite some sources if you want me to accept this Greek argument from you....because no Greek teacher has ever made such an argument that I have heard and from what I know, you are not a Greek scholar. So where did you hear this argument?
That is a red Herring WW, and Trench refutes both of your assertions;
Similarly, the phrase kainai glossai (Strong's #1100; Mark 16:17) does not refer to the recent commencement of the miraculous speaking with tongues but to the dissimilarity of these tongues to any that had occurred before.
https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/tsn/view.cgi?n=58
Therefore these tongues were called heterai (Strong's #2087) glossai (Acts 2:4), unusual tongues that were different from any previously known. This sense of the unusual in kainos comes out very clearly in a passage from Xenophon: "Either a new [kaines] rule beginning or the customary one remaining."


Even in the English it makes sense because Jesus would have said other tongues or languages and not new tongues.

Wormwood said:
I appreciate and understand your explanation. Maybe I just have a lack of faith on this issue, but I guess my question would be, "How would anyone know if they have the gift of interpretation? Couldn't they just be spewing nonsense in an effort to interpret the unintelligible?" I mean, why would Paul say not to speak in tongues unless someone has the gift of interpretation if the gift of interpretation is just any ol person standing up and saying the first thing that comes to their mind (and believing God is giving a right interpretation of something with no human meaning)? I guess that is an issue I wrestled with in my time with charismatics. There is an assumption everyone has these gifts and that the possession of these gifts is really about just standing up and saying whatever jumps into your mind...and I dont see Paul encouraging such things or indicating that this how these gifts work or are discovered.
Anything with you is God weather exercising the gifts of the holy spirit or believing in his word boils down to Faith. Faith does not require understanding or actual insurance is that what we are believing or doing is what God wants. We walk in faith our entire life and usually people that fall into apostasy are those that refused to walk in faith anymore and want all the answers all the knowledge right now. If they don't get it they give up. One must first have faith that God has given them any gift, not just the gift of healing. The Bible says the prayer of faith will heal the sick so if one does not exercise Faith even if they have the healing gift then the person they pray for it won't be healed. Katherine Kuhlman used to say that whenever God told her to lay hands on someone for healing, they would be healed but if somebody just approached her without God telling her he would heal that person then it was on a hit-and-miss basis as to whether or not they would be healed. That is the way God works. He requires faith and if we're not willing to step out in faith then we can't really expect to be used of God. Even the preacher on Sunday Morning has to have faith that the sermon he's preaching is what God wants him to convey to the congregation. If he decided all on his own as to what he was going to teach then there's no real assurance that it's going to get through to the congregation at all.

Wormwood said:
No, but it wouldnt matter if someone actually had the gift of interpretation either, would it? Anyone can stand up and say anything and no one would know different. How could they? Faith, in this sense, becomes me believing that whatever I say is actually what God is saying. That is not "faith" as I see it defined in the Bible, and I find it to be a dangerous redefinition of the term.
Yes it indeed does matter because the ones exercising tongues and interpretation as well as prophecy are the ones that have a reputation in the congregation of being in touch with God. People coming in off the street for the first time do not exercise tongues or interpretation or prophecy because it would not be in order as Paul commanded. Also the pastor does not just sit back and take it all in, he has to exercise judgement and discernment and whether or not what is being said is applicable to the congregation or not. It would be his responsibility to ensure that the words where acceptable and responsible and meant to be seriously considered or it would be up to him to indicate why that was not applicable. You actually have to fully understand and exist in the Pentecostal atmosphere to understand how they all work together. This is not to be confused with a charismatic atmosphere which is basically from the RCC.

Wormwood said:
Ok, but try to understand where I am coming from. You say the real gift is interpretation, but as I point out above, how can anyone know? I mean, if tongues is unintelligible and the gift is expressed by faith in saying just whatever sounds pop into your head, and the interpretation, likewise, is the real edifying gift, but it also is just an act of faith that whatever thoughts pop into my head is the meaning of the unintelligible sounds that popped into the other guys head...then how do you know any of it is a "gift" at all. How is this evidence to unbelievers of anything? How do you know there arent thousands of people who are just making things up and attributing sounds and whatever thoughts/interpretations pop into their heads as words from God when in actuality they are just expressions of their own imaginations? I am not trying to be mean here, but cant you see how this lends itself to all kinds of abuse? And how can anyone provide correction or direction here when there is nothing to direct because none of this is intelligible or discernible? I just dont think expressing whatever thoughts or sounds come to your mind is how the Spirit works. Personally, I think such approaches to "gifts" are far to easily manipulated and I have seen them used very frequently as means of manipulation and often employed by selfish, attention seeking peoples (i.e. listen to me, I am God's mouthpiece). What I see in Acts are bonified signs that point to an Almighty God doing the miraculous, and what I have seen among charismatics in this regard is anything but that. I think most mean well, but I just dont see this as anything close to what was happening in Acts.
I actually do understand where you're coming from because I've been there. You're looking at this from a natural man prospective and not from the spiritual perspective. We know that the things of the spirit cannot be understood if we're not in the spirit and of course this touches on another subject but being in the spirit means that you have been baptized in the spirit. One may be saved but one is not in the spirit until they receive the baptism of the Holy Spirit as Acts 19:1-7 clearly demonstrates.
"The uninitiated have real questions and valid concerns over how the things of God appear to them." (Jerry B. Jenkins)
There are phonies throughout the entire body of Christ and it is not limited to just the Pentecostal experience. Many of those who believe in the blab it and grab it theology are not Pentecostal.

Wormwood said:
Well, I think we would have a war over terms here.... I believe I was filled with the Holy Spirit when I submitted my life to Christ and was baptized. I dont think filling = unintelligible utterances nor does maturity and power = tongues. Paul never makes such links and I think it is highly unwise to do so. The Christians in Corinth were filled with selfishness and carnal thoughts and they spoke in tongues. They weren't "filled" with the Spirit (Paul says this plainly) because tongues is no such sign! Equating the two is a SERIOUS error among charismatics, imo.
I have no intention of having a war over terms because I don't have a problem with the terms. John the Baptist said that Jesus came not to baptize as he did but the baptized with the Holy Spirit and Power. That happened in Acts 2:4 and throughout Acts. It is how the writer of Acts knew the people were filled with the holy spirit because they spoke in new tongues. I'm sorry you don't see the precedent there, but it's there regardless. In Corinthians Paul was speaking to those with already receive the baptism of the Holy Spirit and he was teaching them and how to exercise their gifts in an orderly fashion in the corporate setting. You will have to support your negative assertion chair with something that backs them up because I see nothing in Corinthians that says "they weren't saved" and "Paul said this plainly"? Again charismatics and Pentecostals are not the same thing and I refer to the Pentecostal experience. I can't really speak for charismatics, having never been one.

Wormwood said:
I was promised by a charismatic teacher that God was going to give me the gift of tongues if I came forward at a rally. I did. He laid hands on me. Nothing happened. He tried to coax me into making sounds and falling down, but I was genuinely seeking God to do it in me, as he had promised. Eventually he said, "Well, God told me you will get the gift at a later time." Apparently God changed his mind when he told him I would receive it then if I came forward at that moment? I have been very open to this and had people lay hands on me and promise me such things, but to no avail. The more I have learned and seen these "gifts" in action and the more I have studied the Bible, the more I have seen that the two are not the same...and the former usually has zero value for spiritual maturity, being a sign to unbelievers or drawing people close to God. In fact, what I have seen in these movements and among Christians I have been close to who participate in them....there has be zero value from these activities in their lives. Many of them fell away from the faith, spent very little time in the Word and were often engaged in serious sin in their personal lives while putting on all kinds of spiritual displays when believers gathered. I am not saying its true of you and those you fellowship with...but that has been my experience.
None of us including yourself can be responsible for people who do it wrong in terms of our faith. Many people do many things wrong and say many things wrong. If one has never received the Holy Spirit and has never spoken in tongues then one cannot walk up to the front of a service and receive the gift of tongues if they don't have the baptism of the Holy Spirit. It's simple math, 1 plus 1 equals 2, 0 + 1 doesn't equal 2 and 0 + 0 doesn't equal 2.
I'm sure you well know that works without faith mean absolutely nothing and. If no one is willing to sit down and talk to you about the experience or one does not have the ability to lay hands on people so that they can receive the Holy Spirit as the apostles did then there's no use in explaining anything. The experience is not invalid but the people who aren't call to teach it or convey it, are. Remember that the charismatic movement came out of the RCC and as such most of those people didn't have a very good understanding of a sinless life style or at least trying to walk in that christ-like attitude. I think you need to experience the Holy Spirit in a true Pentecostal Church. In any event I have known of people that have been filled by the Holy Spirit simply in their prayer lives after being saved so I don't think it is a matter of emotional input but simply a matter of believing what God's word says about being baptized in the Holy Spirit. The same way that you believe Jesus became your savior when you confessed him is the way you have to believe that the Holy Spirit Will baptize you when you ask him to. I cannot relate to someone who has lived a good portion of their Christian walk without the baptism of the holy spirit because I have not. I have seen those that have trouble with it and eventually they walk away feeling disappointed or let down. I can't relate because my face was proven by God's actions.

Wormwood said:
None of this is "fact." All of it is an issue of interpretation and debate. I am just sharing my experiences and my views as well as why I hold to them.
Fact and opinion are not the same thing WW. Many people are 100% convinced that God doesn't exist and that is their opinion. To have that opinion is fact because they have probably wanted God to prove himself to them and of course you know God won't do that. Romans 1 shows us that mankind is without excuse and not believing in God. My face and God's word has been borne out by actual experience coming to reality. I can't convince anybody heard of brainwashing that I'm telling the truth. They can only approach God with that open and faithful heart to find out.