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PeterAndroz

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That is simply false, and you are forcing a doctrine onto passages that do not say what you claim.

Galatians 2:2 does NOT say Paul “had to teach John the Gospel.” Paul says, “I communicated unto them that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles.” Then just a few verses later Paul says James, Cephas, and John “perceived the grace that was given unto me” and “gave to me and Barnabas the right hands of fellowship” ~Galatians 2:9. They recognized his ministry. The text does not say John had been preaching a false gospel and Paul corrected him.

Nor does Galatians 2 teach two different ways of salvation. Paul destroys that idea himself:

“Whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed.” ~1 Corinthians 15:11

Read that again. Paul did not say, “I preach one saving gospel and the other apostles preach another.” He said, “SO WE PREACH.”

And your attempt to throw John out because Paul was the apostle to the Gentiles is just as bad. John explicitly tells us why he wrote his Gospel:

“But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.” ~John 20:31

According to you, we should ignore John when discussing how a person receives life because Paul is “our Apostle.” John says the exact opposite. He wrote so people would believe and have life through Christ.

Peter also preached the gospel to Gentiles in Acts 10. What did he tell Cornelius?

“To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.” ~Acts 10:43

Then the Holy Ghost fell upon those Gentiles while Peter was speaking. That happened without your supposed separate Pauline formula.

Acts 15 makes it even worse for your argument. Peter said of the Gentiles:

“But we believe that through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they.” ~Acts 15:11

One Lord. One grace. One salvation.

Yes, Paul was specially commissioned to the Gentiles. Romans 11:13 says exactly that. But a difference in ministry assignment does not create two gospels, two ways of salvation, or give you permission to dismiss the words of Christ recorded by John.

And Acts 9:15 does not say, “Paul is your Apostle.” Jesus said Paul was “a chosen vessel unto me, to bear my name before the Gentiles, and kings, and the children of Israel.” You are putting words into the text again.

Paul himself warned what happens when someone brings another gospel:

“But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.” ~Galatians 1:8

Stop chopping the Bible into competing salvation messages. Scripture does not teach it. Paul did not teach it. Peter did not teach it. John did not teach it.

There is one gospel of Jesus Christ, and sinners are saved by grace through faith in Him.
""That is simply false, and you are forcing a doctrine onto passages that do not say what you claim.""
Gal2:2
And I went up by revelation, and communicated unto them that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles, but privately to them which were of reputation, lest by any means I should run, or had run, in vain.
If the 12 ALREADY KNEW THAT GOSPEL that Paul was teaching then there was no need for Paul to go there & explain it to them
And since you KNOW IT ALL - list the verses that is THAT GOSPEL that Paul communicate to them
 
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bdavidc

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""That is simply false, and you are forcing a doctrine onto passages that do not say what you claim.""
Gal2:2
And I went up by revelation, and communicated unto them that gospel which I preach among the Gentiles, but privately to them which were of reputation, lest by any means I should run, or had run, in vain.
If the 12 ALREADY KNEW THAT GOSPEL that Paul was teaching then there was no need for Paul to go there & explain it to them
And since you KNOW IT ALL - list the verses that is THAT GOSPEL that Paul communicate to them
That argument still does not work. Galatians 2:2 says Paul communicated the gospel he preached among the Gentiles. It does not say the apostles had never heard it, did not know it, or were preaching a different way of salvation. You are reading all of that into the verse.

Paul tells us exactly what his gospel was: “Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures” (1 Corinthians 15:3-4). Then he immediately says, “Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed” (1 Corinthians 15:11). That destroys the idea that Paul and the other apostles had competing saving gospels.

Paul preached justification by faith: “Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law” (Romans 3:28). Peter preached the same salvation: “whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins” (Acts 10:43). Then Peter said, “through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they” (Acts 15:11).

So here is “that gospel” Paul preached: Christ died for our sins, was buried, rose again, and sinners are justified by faith in Him apart from works. The other apostles preached that same Christ and that same salvation.

Your entire argument depends on turning “Paul explained his gospel to them” into “they did not know that gospel.” The text never says that. In fact, Galatians 2:9 says James, Cephas, and John recognized the grace given to Paul and gave him “the right hands of fellowship.”

You are trying to manufacture two saving gospels where Paul explicitly says, “whether it were I or they, so we preach.” Scripture could hardly make the answer clearer.
 
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PeterAndroz

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That argument still does not work. Galatians 2:2 says Paul communicated the gospel he preached among the Gentiles. It does not say the apostles had never heard it, did not know it, or were preaching a different way of salvation. You are reading all of that into the verse.

Paul tells us exactly what his gospel was: “Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures” (1 Corinthians 15:3-4). Then he immediately says, “Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed” (1 Corinthians 15:11). That destroys the idea that Paul and the other apostles had competing saving gospels.

Paul preached justification by faith: “Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law” (Romans 3:28). Peter preached the same salvation: “whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins” (Acts 10:43). Then Peter said, “through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they” (Acts 15:11).

So here is “that gospel” Paul preached: Christ died for our sins, was buried, rose again, and sinners are justified by faith in Him apart from works. The other apostles preached that same Christ and that same salvation.

Your entire argument depends on turning “Paul explained his gospel to them” into “they did not know that gospel.” The text never says that. In fact, Galatians 2:9 says James, Cephas, and John recognized the grace given to Paul and gave him “the right hands of fellowship.”

You are trying to manufacture two saving gospels where Paul explicitly says, “whether it were I or they, so we preach.” Scripture could hardly make the answer clearer.
"" It does not say the apostles had never heard i""
Somebody forgot to tell them !!!!!!!!!!
Matt 16:21-22
21From that time forth began Jesus to shew unto his disciples, how that he must go unto Jerusalem, and suffer many things of the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and be raised again the third day.
22Then Peter took him, and began to rebuke him, saying, Be it far from thee, Lord: this shall not be unto thee.
 

quietthinker

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The fork illustration sounds clever, but it still does not answer the question I asked you. Where does Scripture say that God has already forgiven every unbelieving, unrepentant sinner?
For God SO loved the WORLD he GAVE his only Son.....John 3:16
It is the world that was given the gift....and those who want it take it, those who don't want it don't take it.
 

bdavidc

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"" It does not say the apostles had never heard i""
Somebody forgot to tell them !!!!!!!!!!
Matt 16:21-22
21From that time forth began Jesus to shew unto his disciples, how that he must go unto Jerusalem, and suffer many things of the elders and chief priests and scribes, and be killed, and be raised again the third day.
22Then Peter took him, and began to rebuke him, saying, Be it far from thee, Lord: this shall not be unto thee.
You are proving that the disciples did not understand Christ’s death and resurrection before it happened. You are not proving that Peter later preached a different gospel from Paul.

Matthew 16:21-22 says Peter resisted what Jesus told him. Luke 18:34 goes even further and says, “they understood none of these things.” Fine. Nobody is arguing otherwise.

But after the resurrection, Jesus “opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures” (Luke 24:45). Then Peter went out and preached Christ crucified, risen from the dead, and remission of sins through faith in His name.

Acts 10:43 says, “through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.” That is Peter preaching salvation through faith in Christ.

You keep reaching back before Calvary as though Peter remained ignorant afterward. He did not. Christ opened his understanding, and Peter preached the death and resurrection of Christ.

And you still have not answered 1 Corinthians 15:11. Paul described the gospel of Christ’s death, burial, and resurrection, then said of himself and the other apostles, “Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed.”

That verse is fatal to your argument. Paul did not say, “I preached one gospel and they preached another.” He said, “whether it were I or they, so we preach.”

You are trying to force two saving gospels into Scripture when Scripture itself says the apostles preached the same gospel. Matthew 16 does not rescue that teaching. It simply does not.
 
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bdavidc

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For God SO loved the WORLD he GAVE his only Son.....John 3:16
It is the world that was given the gift....and those who want it take it, those who don't want it don't take it.
That still does not answer the question I asked you. John 3:16 says God loved the world and gave His Son. It does not say God had already forgiven every unbelieving sinner in the world. You are putting forgiveness into the verse where the verse does not say it.

In fact, the same passage says the exact opposite of what you are claiming. John 3:18 says, “he that believeth not is condemned already,” and John 3:36 says, “he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.”

How can a man be already forgiven while at the same time being “condemned already” with the wrath of God abiding on him? That does not fit the text.

God gave His Son to the world, yes. The gospel is offered to the world, yes. But John 3:16 itself says, “whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.” The distinction is between the one who believes and the one who does not.

Acts 10:43 says the same thing: “through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.” It does not say the unbeliever already has remission of sins and simply decides whether he wants to enjoy it. It says the one who believes shall receive remission of sins.

You keep saying the gift was already given to everyone in the sense that everyone is already forgiven, but Scripture never says that. God gave His Son for the world. That is what John 3:16 says. You are taking that truth and adding another statement to it that the Bible does not make.

So the question still stands: where does Scripture say that every unbelieving, unrepentant sinner is already forgiven?

John 3:16 does not say it.
 

quietthinker

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That still does not answer the question I asked you. John 3:16 says God loved the world and gave His Son. It does not say God had already forgiven every unbelieving sinner in the world. You are putting forgiveness into the verse where the verse does not say it.
You do not see it as saying it, not because it's not saying it but because you don't see it. In fact, any verse that is cited which tells us of God's unconditional love for humanity (and there are many) would not be seen as such because it's not what you want to see.

Having a memory for scriptures as well as the ability to quote them is a measure of good memory, not a measure of truth. One can cobble scriptures together to make pig shit look like diamonds .....to the ignorant.

The witness of Jesus is faithful to the character of his Father. A revisit of Jesus' story of the Prodigal Son or that of the Good Samaritan....to mention a couple, is well worth it if one is open to hearing. In the story of the Prodigal Son, Jesus is telling us about the character of his Father; that to which he is a witness in words and deeds.
 
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quietthinker

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That still does not answer the question I asked you. John 3:16 says God loved the world and gave His Son. It does not say God had already forgiven every unbelieving sinner in the world. You are putting forgiveness into the verse where the verse does not say it.

In fact, the same passage says the exact opposite of what you are claiming. John 3:18 says, “he that believeth not is condemned already,” and John 3:36 says, “he that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him.”

How can a man be already forgiven while at the same time being “condemned already” with the wrath of God abiding on him? That does not fit the text.

God gave His Son to the world, yes. The gospel is offered to the world, yes. But John 3:16 itself says, “whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.” The distinction is between the one who believes and the one who does not.

Acts 10:43 says the same thing: “through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.” It does not say the unbeliever already has remission of sins and simply decides whether he wants to enjoy it. It says the one who believes shall receive remission of sins.

You keep saying the gift was already given to everyone in the sense that everyone is already forgiven, but Scripture never says that. God gave His Son for the world. That is what John 3:16 says. You are taking that truth and adding another statement to it that the Bible does not make.

So the question still stands: where does Scripture say that every unbelieving, unrepentant sinner is already forgiven?

John 3:16 does not say it.
That which you know in your experience does not necessarily reflect the way God feels towards you. Consider the story of the Pharisee and the Publican who both went to the temple to pray.
We could say that how the Pharisee saw himself (attitude) was the way the younger son saw himself when he asked his Father for the inheritance due to him, ie entitled, proud, unashamed, cocky and then how the same boy saw himself when he was bankrupt, ie humbled, broken, hungry and not worthy of being his Fathers son.......much how the Publican saw himself.

The Father laboured with both the Sons. The home boy was begged to come into the party but was full of resentment.....and the Prodigal, his choreographed apology was hardly heard before the Father reinstated him and threw a party to end all parties.
The goodies the Father gave the prodigal, ie the ring, the robe and the sandals was to reassure the boy of his status.....not to shift anything in the Fathers attitude or feelings toward him.
 

bdavidc

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You do not see it as saying it, not because it's not saying it but because you don't see it. In fact, any verse that is cited which tells us of God's unconditional love for humanity (and there are many) would not be seen as such because it's not what you want to see.

Having a memory for scriptures as well as the ability to quote them is a measure of good memory, not a measure of truth. One can cobble scriptures together to make pig shit look like diamonds .....to the ignorant.

The witness of Jesus is faithful to the character of his Father. A revisit of Jesus' story of the Prodigal Son or that of the Good Samaritan....to mention a couple, is well worth it if one is open to hearing. In the story of the Prodigal Son, Jesus is telling us about the character of his Father; that to which he is a witness in words and deeds.
No, the problem is not that I “don’t see it.” The problem is that you are claiming the text says something it simply does not say. Accusing someone of blindness does not turn your interpretation into Scripture.
 

bdavidc

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That which you know in your experience does not necessarily reflect the way God feels towards you. Consider the story of the Pharisee and the Publican who both went to the temple to pray.
We could say that how the Pharisee saw himself (attitude) was the way the younger son saw himself when he asked his Father for the inheritance due to him, ie entitled, proud, unashamed, cocky and then how the same boy saw himself when he was bankrupt, ie humbled, broken, hungry and not worthy of being his Fathers son.......much how the Publican saw himself.

The Father laboured with both the Sons. The home boy was begged to come into the party but was full of resentment.....and the Prodigal, his choreographed apology was hardly heard before the Father reinstated him and threw a party to end all parties.
The goodies the Father gave the prodigal, ie the ring, the robe and the sandals was to reassure the boy of his status.....not to shift anything in the Fathers attitude or feelings toward him.
You are forcing your doctrine into the parables instead of letting Jesus explain them.

The prodigal was not restored while he was still in rebellion. He “came to himself,” confessed, “I have sinned,” and returned to his father (Luke 15:17-20). Then the father received him. Jesus said, “this my son was dead, and is alive again; he was lost, and is found” (Luke 15:24). Stop pretending nothing changed.

The Publican is just as clear. He cried, “God be merciful to me a sinner,” and Jesus said, “this man went down to his house justified” (Luke 18:13-14). He was not already justified and simply unaware of it.

You keep confusing God’s love with automatic forgiveness. Scripture does not. Love does not erase repentance, faith, justification, or the difference between being lost and being found.

At this point, you are not explaining the text. You are rewriting it to protect your doctrine.
 

quietthinker

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You are forcing your doctrine into the parables instead of letting Jesus explain them.

The prodigal was not restored while he was still in rebellion. He “came to himself,” confessed, “I have sinned,” and returned to his father (Luke 15:17-20). Then the father received him. Jesus said, “this my son was dead, and is alive again; he was lost, and is found” (Luke 15:24). Stop pretending nothing changed.

The Publican is just as clear. He cried, “God be merciful to me a sinner,” and Jesus said, “this man went down to his house justified” (Luke 18:13-14). He was not already justified and simply unaware of it.

You keep confusing God’s love with automatic forgiveness. Scripture does not. Love does not erase repentance, faith, justification, or the difference between being lost and being found.

At this point, you are not explaining the text. You are rewriting it to protect your doctrine.
What we experience is not necessarily how God feels. Repentance is a result not a cause of forgiveness.
 

bdavidc

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What we experience is not necessarily how God feels. Repentance is a result not a cause of forgiveness.
That is false teaching, and the problem is your eisegesis.

You keep quietly changing “kindness” into “forgiveness” and then building your doctrine on the substitution. Scripture never gives you permission to do that.

Yes, God's goodness leads a sinner to repentance. But Romans 2:5 says the man who remains “impenitent” is treasuring up “wrath against the day of wrath.” That is not a forgiven man who simply has not realized it yet.

And Acts 3:19 could hardly be clearer: “Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out.”

Notice that Scripture does not say, “Your sins are already forgiven, therefore someday you may repent.”

You can say repentance does not earn forgiveness. I agree. But saying forgiveness is already possessed before repentance and faith is another matter entirely, and Scripture does not teach it.

So this is not about how God “feels.” God has already told us what is true. You are replacing what He said with what you want His kindness to mean.

That is eisegesis, and when you teach it as the gospel, it becomes false teaching.
 

quietthinker

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That is false teaching, and the problem is your eisegesis.

You keep quietly changing “kindness” into “forgiveness” and then building your doctrine on the substitution. Scripture never gives you permission to do that.

Yes, God's goodness leads a sinner to repentance. But Romans 2:5 says the man who remains “impenitent” is treasuring up “wrath against the day of wrath.” That is not a forgiven man who simply has not realized it yet.

And Acts 3:19 could hardly be clearer: “Repent ye therefore, and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out.”

Notice that Scripture does not say, “Your sins are already forgiven, therefore someday you may repent.”

You can say repentance does not earn forgiveness. I agree. But saying forgiveness is already possessed before repentance and faith is another matter entirely, and Scripture does not teach it.

So this is not about how God “feels.” God has already told us what is true. You are replacing what He said with what you want His kindness to mean.

That is eisegesis, and when you teach it as the gospel, it becomes false teaching.
Here are three options:

1 A man can have won the lottery, not know it and continue to live as a pauper
2. A man can have won the lottery, know it and continue to live as a pauper, ie even be mean spirited.
3 A man can have won the lottery, know it and share his good fortune with those around him
 

Lambano

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Repentance is a result not a cause of forgiveness.
When a certain woman crashed Simon the Pharisee's party, which did Jesus say came first in this little vignette, forgiveness or love?

luke-7-47.jpeg
 
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quietthinker

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When a certain woman crashed Simon the Pharisee's party, which did Jesus say came first in this little vignette, forgiveness or love?

luke-7-47.jpeg
Is it possible that this woman was Mary, Martha's sister?
Is it possible she anointed his head as well as his feet?
We aren't explicitly told of her background but we can by taking note of the record, join certain dots.
I think this woman was so appreciative of her forgiveness she was prepared to risk gatecrashing this private party.....even engaging behaviour which in the eyes of the host compromised Jesus' integrity.
 
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bdavidc

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Here are three options:

1 A man can have won the lottery, not know it and continue to live as a pauper
2. A man can have won the lottery, know it and continue to live as a pauper, ie even be mean spirited.
3 A man can have won the lottery, know it and share his good fortune with those around him
Your lottery illustration still assumes the point you have not proven. A man can only “already have won the lottery” if he has actually won it. Where does Scripture say an unbelieving, unrepentant sinner has already received forgiveness and simply does not know it?

Scripture says the opposite.

“He that believeth not is condemned already” (John 3:18).

“He that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him” (John 3:36).

And Acts 10:43 says, “whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.”

So the issue is not whether someone knows he is forgiven, enjoys his forgiveness, or shares it with others. The issue is whether he possesses forgiveness at all before repentance and faith.

Your illustration assumes yes. Scripture says no.
 

quietthinker

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Your lottery illustration still assumes the point you have not proven. A man can only “already have won the lottery” if he has actually won it. Where does Scripture say an unbelieving, unrepentant sinner has already received forgiveness and simply does not know it?

Scripture says the opposite.

“He that believeth not is condemned already” (John 3:18).

“He that believeth not the Son shall not see life; but the wrath of God abideth on him” (John 3:36).

And Acts 10:43 says, “whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.”

So the issue is not whether someone knows he is forgiven, enjoys his forgiveness, or shares it with others. The issue is whether he possesses forgiveness at all before repentance and faith.

Your illustration assumes yes. Scripture says no.
bdavidc, you want proof but proof is only of use when ears and eyes are open.
Try and prove the existence of God to an atheist.....good luck!

The story of Jesus is evidence of what you are asking. Is it you don't see Jesus? is it you don't take him and his words seriously? Is it that Jesus is a convenient rubber stamp to validate blindness?
One thing I do know, ie the Pharisee's had an unending list of things and methods to be remembered and observed before forgiveness by God could come about......non of which looked the least bit interesting to me but it obviously did to the 'religious'
 

TLHKAJ

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bdavidc, you want proof but proof is only of use when ears and eyes are open.
Try and prove the existence of God to an atheist.....good luck!

The story of Jesus is evidence of what you are asking. Is it you don't see Jesus? is it you don't take him and his words seriously? Is it that Jesus is a convenient rubber stamp to validate blindness?
One thing I do know, ie the Pharisee's had an unending list of things and methods to be remembered and observed before forgiveness by God could come about......non of which looked the least bit interesting to me but it obviously did to the 'religious'
Why do you reject the scriptures? @bdavidc posted scripture that should not be ignored. Are you of the belief that certain parts of the Bible aren't God-inspired?
 
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amigo de christo

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That is a dodge, not an answer. You were asked to show where Scripture says the unbelieving, unrepentant sinner is already forgiven. You did not do it. Instead, you turned the discussion into an accusation about “judging others.” That does not make your claim biblical.

Jesus said, “Judge not according to the appearance, but judge righteous judgment” ~John 7:24. Scripture also commands us, “Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God” ~1 John 4:1. Biblical discernment is not forbidden. False teaching is supposed to be tested and exposed by the Word of God.

The issue is simple. Scripture says the unbeliever “is condemned already” ~John 3:18, and “the wrath of God abideth on him” ~John 3:36. You cannot turn a condemned man under God’s wrath into a forgiven man without contradicting the text.

So stop hiding behind “you are judging.” Answer the Scripture. Where does the Bible say the unbelieving, unrepentant man is already forgiven? If you cannot produce that verse, then quit teaching it as though God said it. “Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar” ~Proverbs 30:6.
Yes my friend . You see their strategy . they cannot bring doctrine so bring the emotional judge not card
or in other terms the vicitim card .
Make the one bringing truth seem as if they are an oppressor and an accuser and that the ones they are correcting
seem as the oppressed and as the victim .
THIS IS NOT an accident . our churches were groomed years and years ago by these methods .
As was society . And when TRUTH was silenced by such methods
ANY guesses on what took over . WHY just look at the churches and society for that answer , EVIL DID .
 

amigo de christo

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That argument still does not work. Galatians 2:2 says Paul communicated the gospel he preached among the Gentiles. It does not say the apostles had never heard it, did not know it, or were preaching a different way of salvation. You are reading all of that into the verse.

Paul tells us exactly what his gospel was: “Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures” (1 Corinthians 15:3-4). Then he immediately says, “Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed” (1 Corinthians 15:11). That destroys the idea that Paul and the other apostles had competing saving gospels.

Paul preached justification by faith: “Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law” (Romans 3:28). Peter preached the same salvation: “whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins” (Acts 10:43). Then Peter said, “through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved, even as they” (Acts 15:11).

So here is “that gospel” Paul preached: Christ died for our sins, was buried, rose again, and sinners are justified by faith in Him apart from works. The other apostles preached that same Christ and that same salvation.

Your entire argument depends on turning “Paul explained his gospel to them” into “they did not know that gospel.” The text never says that. In fact, Galatians 2:9 says James, Cephas, and John recognized the grace given to Paul and gave him “the right hands of fellowship.”

You are trying to manufacture two saving gospels where Paul explicitly says, “whether it were I or they, so we preach.” Scripture could hardly make the answer clearer.
So here is “that gospel” Paul preached: Christ died for our sins, was buried, rose again, and sinners are justified by faith in Him apart from works. The other apostles preached that same Christ and that same salvation.

NOW take a peek at what Peter and others went about preaching to the jews as well as what peter
preached to the gentile house of cornelious .
Then notice that paul himself preached in all the jewish synagogues , where both gentiles and greeks were gathered
THE ONE SAME GOSPEL . You are correct , THEY ALL preached the one same identical gospel
to both jew and gentile . And this is easily seen In acts and in other places .
The problem is that many sit under men that twist things rather than simply reading and enjoying the bible for themselves .