Davy
Well-Known Member
OK.
I find this routinely when I disagree with someone, that there comes a point when the discussion comes to a particular verse, and someone saying somthing like, "Well, it SAYS 'mortal body', but what it MEANS is 'spiritual body'."
It says THIS but what it really means is THAT.
Curious . . . if God wanted to tell us that the Spirit would give life to our mortal bodies, how do you suppose He would say that?
And why should we not accept it with the simplicity of what it says?
Much love!
You aren't able to understand because of that word "mortal". You think that word must always point to the flesh just because our flesh is mortal. Yet I showed from 1 Cor.15:53 that the word "mortal" in the Greek means 'liable to die' per Strong's no. 2349 but must put on "immortality" to have eternal life, even though the previous word "corruptible" is actually about the flesh body. Paul was talking about 2 changes we must go through to have eternal life through Christ. Our corruptible flesh body must be changed to the body of incorruption, which is a "spiritual body", and "this mortal" which is about a liable to die soul must put on immortality. We well know the flesh is not immortal because Paul said flesh and bones cannot inherit the kingdom of God. That has to mean "this mortal" means our spirit/soul, for that is still what is liable to die for those of the resurrection of damnation who will be resurrected when Jesus comes, but will still be subject to the "second death". (This is really easy if one does not allow their carnal mind to get in the way.)
What you don't understand is the resurrection, period. In Matthew 22:30 Jesus said those of the resurrection are "as the angels of God in heaven", meaning there is no flesh body involved. Paul affirmed that too in 1 Corinthians 15:50.