The fact is that there is ZERO Biblical evidence that Mary had a child other than Jesus.
Every time a new thread about Mary’s Perpetual Virginity is created – the SAME evidence is presented and is routinely DEBUNKED. Let’s start with the word “Until”.
Matt. 1:25
But he did not consummate their marriage UNTIL she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus.
Biblically-speaking, the work “Until” (Gr.-heos / Heb.-‘ad) does NOT necessarily point to a subsequent action.
2 Samuel 6:23 tells us: Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child UNTIL the day of her death.
Are we to assume that Michal had children after she died?
Moses was buried by God in the valley of Moab after his death. Deut. 34:6 explicitly states: And he buried him in the valley of the land of Moab over against Phogor: and no man hath known of his sepulchre UNTIL this present day.
Did somebody find out AFTER this verse was written?
Let’s also examine Acts 2:34-35 (also see Psalm 110:1, Matt 22:44): For David did not go up into heaven, but he himself said: 'The Lord said to my Lord, "Sit at my right hand UNTIL I make your enemies your footstool."'
Are we to surmise that Jesus will cease to sit at the right hand of the Father after his enemies are made his footstool?
Matt. 1:25 is simply stating that Joseph and Mary didn’t have relations.
As for the “named” brethren of the Lord – they are shown to be the children of Mary’s kinswoman who was with her at the foot of the cross and her husband Clopas/Alphaeus.
As you might be aware – “Adelphoos” (brother) is used for MANY relationships other than uterine sibling.
It is also used for half-brother-cousin, uncle, nephew, friend, fellow believer, neighbor, etc.
As a matter of fact - there are 344 instances are instances where the word “Adelphos” and all of its variations are used in the NT.
41 times (12%) are cases where "Adelphos" clearly or probably refers to a family sibling.
47 instances (14%) are cases where "Adelphos" may or may not refer to a family sibling.
A whopping 256 instances (74%) are cases where "Adelphos" cannot or almost certainly does NOT refer to a family sibling.
There is not a SINGLE verse of Scripture that states MARY had other children.
The main reason the catholics teach Mary never had children is to glorify her above that of a christian.
To put Mary on a pedestal as something to be prayed to and worshipped even though they will deny this.
There is overwhelming evidence catholics worship Mary pray to Mary.
This is why they don't want sex or children to be associated with Mary.
They view her as diety.
There is not a SINGLE verse of Scripture that states MARY had other children
Mark 6:3,
- Is this not the carpenter, the
Son of Mary
and brother of James, Joses, Judas and Simon And are not His(Jesus) sisters her with us
BreadofLife, you can claim these verses are not referring to Jesus' brothers and sisters but the context shows those names are the siblings of Jesus!
As for the “named” brethren of the Lord – they are shown to be the children of Mary’s kinswoman who was with her at the foot of the cross and her husband Clopas/Alphaeus
Well at least you tried BreadofLife.
In Mark 6:3 Mary's "kinswomen" is NOWHERE MENTIONED!
Only Mary and her Son and His brothers and sisters.
So your argument doesn't even apply to this verse.
Matt. 1:25 is simply stating that Joseph and Mary didn’t have relations
NO sexual relationship between husband and wife?
Give the Bible verse where Joseph and Mary are commanded not to ever have sex?
I'll be waiting.
You cannot say they didn't because these verses can be understood as Joseph did know His wife Mary till Jesus' birth.
Matthew 1:24
- Then Joseph being aroused from sleep did as the angel of the Lord commanded him...
What did the angel of the Lord command Joseph?
Answer,
Matthew 1:24, - ...did as the angel of the Lord commanded him
and took to him his wife
Matthew 1:25 - and did not know her(sexual intercourse) till she had brought forth her firstborn son
Joseph did not have sex with Mary till she had given birth to Jesus.
This is what the text literally says.
Till she gave birth is her virginity.
Till the point of her Sons birth she was a virgin.
That is what the context shows the word till is referring to,
Virgin till her first birth
Matthew 1:25,
- and he did not know Mary till she had brought forth her first Son...
The verse clearly shows her virginity is till the first birth of her Son.
This can mean that her virginity was till the first birth.
It cannot mean that no sex or children came after her first birth.
That is adding a concept to the verse that is not found in the context of the verse.
Adding a preconceived catholic doctrine is all BreadofLife is doing.
Let's examine his other verses,
2 Samuel 6:23 tells us: Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child UNTIL the day of her death.
The till in this verse is the day of her death.
Therefore the verse is implying no children till death.
No children till death means what it says, no children during her life.
The till in Mary's marriage is her first born Son.
These verses do not equate.
Next,
Moses was buried by God in the valley of Moab after his death. Deut. 34:6 explicitly states: And he buried him in the valley of the land of Moab over against Phogor: and no man hath known of his sepulchre UNTIL this present day
The till is referring to the present day.
So the verse is implying Moses' sepulchre has not been found until that present day.
Nowhere can you interpret this verse to mean someone has found his grave.
The till in Matthew 1:25 is referring to Mary's first birth. She continued to live on past her first birth.
Therefore these verses do not equate.
Next,
Let’s also examine Acts 2:34-35 (also see Psalm 110:1, Matt 22:44): For David did not go up into heaven, but he himself said: 'The Lord said to my Lord, "Sit at my right hand UNTIL I make your enemies your footstool."'
Are we to surmise that Jesus will cease to sit at the right hand of the Father after his enemies are made his footstool?
The until is referring to when the Father makes Jesus' enemies His footstool.
There is nothing stated that Jesus will cease to sit at the right hand of the Father, therefore that would be an assumption not found in the text.
In Matthew 1:25 till is referring to the first birth of Mary. Therefore there is no assumption that Mary's virginity is till her first born Son.
These verses do not equate.
Mark 6:3 states Jesus had brothers and sisters.
With this knowledge it logically follows that Joseph knew his wife Mary sometime after her first born Son.
Matthew 1:25 only tells us how long Mary remained a virgin.
Matthew 1:25 does not teach she remained a virgin.