False Teaching: Mary died a virgin. Biblical Proof Mary had children.

[BreadOfLife]

By the way – Mary, mother of James and Joses (Joseph) is the Adelphe of Mary, mother of Jesus and NOT her uterine sibling. There is not a SINGLE Biblical example of Jewish siblings having the SAME name.

Kinsman/Relative is one of MANY definitions of the Greek word, Adelphos – as well as the Hebrew word Ach’.
THEREFORE, James and Joses were KINSMEN of Jesus – NOT uterine siblings . . .

 

[Berserk]

Can it be that no fundamentalists here have the integrity to check out the many healing miracles performed at Lourdes, France through the healing spring mraculously revealed to Bernadette iby Mary n 1858? Lourdes even has a secular medical bureau for the purpose of gaining medical records that prove these miracles. Do you realize the more pilgrims visit Lourdes each year than pilgrims visit Jerusalem and tna Muslisms visit Mecca? No evangelical site can rival Lourdes' demonstration of the power of Christ in action.

 

[GeneZ]

The largest sectarian religion that professes to be christian, teaches Mary mother of Jesus never had sexual relations with her husband Joseph after the virgin birth of Jesus.

Matthew 1:23-25,
- Behold the virgin shall be with child and bear a Son and they shall call His name Immanuel, which is translated God with us.

- Then Joseph being aroused from sleep did as the angel of the Lord commanded him took to his wife,
and did not KNOW HER till she had brought forth her firstborn Son. And he called His name Jesus.

Galatians 1:19,
- Then after three years I went up to Jerusalem to see Peter and remained with him fifteen days.
- But I saw none of the other apostles except James the Lords BROTHER.

Mary had children with Joseph before she left this earth. Jesus had siblings. Paul says so in Galatians 1:19.
Mary lost her virginity to her husband as God intended.

I would appreciate others to quote passages that show Jesus had siblings.
There are more than the ones I quoted above.
But one only needs one passage that says Jesus had a brother named James to refute the false doctrine of Mary's perpetual virginity.
How many times does God need to say something for it to be true? Once!

The reason for Mary's virgin pregnancy was that it was needed to verify Genesis 3:15.

And I will put enmity​

Between you and the woman,​

And between your seed and her Seed;​

He shall bruise your head,​

And you shall bruise His heel.”​

Her "seed" meant her ovum.
Satan's seed was the fact that when man fell, by default, man became a reflection of Satan's nature.

Her "seed" meant her ovum.
A woman's ovum does not transfer the sin nature to an embryo.
It is from the man's sperm that causes the fallen nature in the flesh to take place.

It was Adam's sperm that gave us all our fallen nature!

​

Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, ​

and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned. (sinned in one point in time =Greek). Romans 5:12​

Jesus, to be born the lamb without spot or blemish?
He needed to be born without a sin nature in his body.

So, for Jesus' birth?
The Holy Spirit provided the needed flawless genetic material to fertilize Mary's ovum.

In effect... That union caused Jesus's body to be born sinless, as Adam had originally been created.

After Jesus was born sinless into the world?
There was no more need for Mary to remain as a virgin.

That is the reason why we find Jesus had brothers and sisters from the union of Joseph and Mary.

 

[Titus]

The reason for Mary's virgin pregnancy was that it was needed to verify Genesis 3:15.

And I will put enmity​

Between you and the woman,​

And between your seed and her Seed;​

He shall bruise your head,​

And you shall bruise His heel.”​

Her "seed" meant her ovum.
Satan's seed was the fact that when man fell, by default, man became a reflection of Satan's nature.

Her "seed" meant her ovum.
A woman's ovum does not transfer the sin nature to an embryo.
It is from the man's sperm that causes the fallen nature in the flesh to take place.

It was Adam's sperm that gave us all our fallen nature!

​

Therefore, just as through one man sin entered the world, and death through sin, ​

and thus death spread to all men, because all sinned. (sinned in one point in time =Greek). Romans 5:12​

Jesus, to be born the lamb without spot or blemish?
He needed to be born without a sin nature in his body.

So, for Jesus' birth?
The Holy Spirit provided the needed flawless genetic material to fertilize Mary's ovum.

In effect... That union caused Jesus's body to be born sinless, as Adam had originally been created.

After Jesus was born sinless into the world?
There was no more need for Mary to remain as a virgin.

That is the reason why we find Jesus had brothers and sisters from the union of Joseph and Mary.

Hello,
I can amen your teaching about Jesus having brothers and sisters birthed from Mary.
But the rest of your teaching I cannot.

Inherited sinful nature is not Biblical.
Adam sinned. Where did he inherit the desire to sin? Where did Eve inherit the desire to sin?
Adam did not require a fallen satanic nature to sin against God.
Neither do we.

 

[BreadOfLife]

That is the reason why we find Jesus had brothers and sisters from the union of Joseph and Mary.

Hello,
I can amen your teaching about Jesus having brothers and sisters birthed from Mary.

You both can continue to live your unbiblical fantasy - but, as I and a few others here have already shown, the Bible NEVER makes such a claim.

 

[sondring7]

You both can continue to live your unbiblical fantasy - but, as I and a few others here have already shown, the Bible NEVER makes such a claim.

What verses actually teach that Mary did not have normal married relations with Joseph after the birth of Christ ?

 

[Armour of God]

What verses actually teach that Mary did not have normal married relations with Joseph after the birth of Christ ?

None

 

[BreadOfLife]

What verses actually teach that Mary did not have normal married relations with Joseph after the birth of Christ ?

There are none.
It is the ABSENCE of His so-called "siblings" in the Gospel shows that Jesus was an only child.

There is not a single verse that claims Mary had other children. The closest thing you have is Mary being in the company of a few of his kinsmen.
Notice that they call him the Adelphoi of Jesus, but they NEVER say the children of Mary.

As I'ver already laid out in great detail - Adelphos(oi) has a MULTITUDE of meanings - MOST of which do NOT translate as uterine siblings. I also showed that the majority of verses do NOT point to uterine siblins.

Let's not forget where I shoed that the "brethren" of the Lord were the sonse of Mary, wife of Clopas/Alphaeus - and NOT those pf Mary, mother of Jesus.

Also, a few pages back I laid out a Biblical argument for the fact that Mary is the fulfillment of the Ark of the Covenant. The Ark was blessed inside and out and was NOT to be handled by man.

The Ark carried symbols of God and His Word power within it.
Mary actually carried God Himself, the Word in her womb.

Oh, I'd say the onus is on YOU guys to show where the Bible states that Mary had "other chiildren" . . .

 

[Titus]

What verses actually teach that Mary did not have normal married relations with Joseph after the birth of Christ ?

Excellent question.
An answer to this question would prove catholic doctrine without a shadow of doubt.

And heres the Biblical answer:

None

The Bible also teaches by the silence of the scriptures.

Heres a direct example of reasoning from silence,
Hebrews 7:14,
- for it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda of the tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.

The writer of Hebrews argument depends on what Moses did not say concerning the priests from Judah.

Leviticus 10:1-2,
- and Nadab and Abihu the sons of Aaron took either of his censor and put fire therein and put incense thereon, and offered strange fire before the LORD, which He commanded them not

Nadab and Abihu's action was not authorized by God. God specified where the fire was to come from. Aaron's sons got fire somewhere else. Thus "strange fire" They chose to do something God said nothing about.
We must all learn from these Bible lessons.
When the scriptures are silent man cannot assume something like Mary never had a normal marriage relationship with her husband Joseph.
To teach otherwise is arguing from an assumption where Gods word is silent.

 

[BreadOfLife]

Inherited sinful nature is not Biblical.
Adam sinned. Where did he inherit the desire to sin? Where did Eve inherit the desire to sin?
Adam did not require a fallen satanic nature to sin against God.
Neither do we.

Gee, whad'ya know?
The Bibole disagrees with you, yet again . . .

Isa. 48:8
You have never heard, you have never known, from of old your ear has not been opened. For I knew that you would surely deal treacherously, and that from BEFORE BIRTH you were called a REBEL.

Rom. 5:12
Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to ALL men because all sinned—

Psalm 51:5
Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in SIN did my mother conceive me.

 

[Titus]

Adelphos(oi) has a MULTITUDE of meanings - MOST of which do NOT translate as uterine siblings. I also showed that the majority of verses do NOT point to uterine siblins

This reasoning is flawed.
The only correct way to determine the meaning of the word adelphos is by the CONTEXT of the verses being examined!!!

If we go by the total number of verses that use this word in the new testament.
Then add up how many times these verses dont use the word for uterine siblings.
That proves nothing about the verses that do!!!

How many verses in the new testament are there that state faith saves?
How many verses are there that state repentance saves?

If we go by a majority of verses, of how many times the bible says which saves.
Faith wins the majority!!!

Using Bread of Lifes reasoning, faith is what saves because there are more verses that state faith saves than there are verses that say repentance saves.

Just because there might be more verses with the Greek word adelphos with a diferent meaning of uterine siblings does not prove that Jesus did not have biological siblings.

 

[BreadOfLife]

Excellent question.
An answer to this question would prove catholic doctrine without a shadow of doubt.

We must all learn from these Bible lessons.
When the scriptures are silent man cannot assume something like Mary never had a normal marriage relationship with her husband Joseph.
To teach otherwise is arguing from an assumption where Gods word is silent.

To teach that Mary had children other than Jesus is to argue from an assumption. Because ALL of the so-called "evidence" that YOU and others have presented has FAILED to make your unbiblical point.

The onus is on YOU and your friends here to show us the verses claiming that Mary, Mother of Jesus had other children . . .

 

[BreadOfLife]

This reasoning is flawed.
The only correct way to determine the meaning of the word adelphos is by the CONTEXT of the verses being examined!!!
Just because there might be more verses with the Greek word adelphos with a diferent meaning of uterine siblings does not prove that Jesus did not have biological siblings.

Uhh, talk about FLAWED reasoning . . .

The Hebrew word Ach’ mirrors the Greek word, Adelphos and all variations. I’ve already shown you this several posts back but nothing seems to penetrate your obstinance.

As I stated before – YOU read the Bible through the dirty screen of 21st century English and 21st century ignorance of a culture and a people from 2000 years ago . . .

 

[Titus]

What verses actually teach that Mary did not have normal married relations with Joseph after the birth of Christ ?

Going against Gods decree is sinful.
Paul is Gods spoke piece as is all the apostles.

People do not get married to live celibate lives.
People stay unmarried to live celibate lives.
To marry then deny your partner's sexual needs violates marital obligations that God Himself has ordained.

1Corinthians 7:3,
- Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence and likewise also the wife unto the husband

1Corinthians 7:5,
- Defraud not one the other except it be with consent for a time(means limited time)

Paul strongly indicates that a permanent unilateral refusal to uphold your duty to your spouse with regard to sexual desire is contrary to Gods instruction for marriage.
This is another strong evidence for why catholic doctrine about Mary's refusal to obey Gods instruction for marriage is unscriptual teaching.

Catholics violate Paul's teaching of marriage obligations.
They go against the word of God.

1Corinthians 7:9,
- but if they cannot contain(sexual desire) let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn

Sexual intimacy within marriage is Biblically affirmed.
Proverbs 5:18-19,
- let thy fountain he blessed and rejoice with the wife of thy youth
Let her be the loving hind and pleasant roe, let her breasts satisfy thee at all times and be thou ravished always with her love

Sex outside of marriage is forbidden by Gods word.
1Corinthians 6:18,
- flee fornication

Hebrews 13:4,
- Marriage is honorable in all and the bed undefiled but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge

Catholics teach Mary would have sinned against God to have laid with her husband.
Catholic teaching goes against Biblical teaching. Catholic doctrine violates Gods word.

1Corinthians 7:2-5,
- Nevertheless to avoid fornication let every man have his own wife and let every women have her own husband

- the wife hath not power of her own body but the husband and likewise also the husband hath not the power of his own body but the wife

- Defraud not one the other except it be with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer and come together again that satan tempt you not for your incontinency(inability to control sexual desire)

 

[BreadOfLife]

Going against Gods decree is sinful.
Paul is Gods spoke piece as is all the apostles.

People do not get married to live celibate lives.
People stay unmarried to live celibate lives.
To marry then deny your partner's sexual needs violates marital obligations that God Himself has ordained.

1Corinthians 7:3,
- Let the husband render unto the wife due benevolence and likewise also the wife unto the husband

1Corinthians 7:5,
- Defraud not one the other except it be with consent for a time(means limited time)

Paul strongly indicates that a permanent unilateral refusal to uphold your duty to your spouse with regard to sexual desire is contrary to Gods instruction for marriage.
This is another strong evidence for why catholic doctrine about Mary's refusal to obey Gods instruction for marriage is unscriptual teaching.

Catholics violate Paul's teaching of marriage obligations.
They go against the word of God.

1Corinthians 7:9,
- but if they cannot contain(sexual desire) let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn

Sexual intimacy within marriage is Biblically affirmed.
Proverbs 5:18-19,
- let thy fountain he blessed and rejoice with the wife of thy youth
Let her be the loving hind and pleasant roe, let her breasts satisfy thee at all times and be thou ravished always with her love

Sex outside of marriage is forbidden by Gods word.
1Corinthians 6:18,
- flee fornication

Hebrews 13:4,
- Marriage is honorable in all and the bed undefiled but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge

Catholics teach Mary would have sinned against God to have laid with her husband.
Catholic teaching goes against Biblical teaching. Catholic doctrine violates Gods word.

1Corinthians 7:2-5,
- Nevertheless to avoid fornication let every man have his own wife and let every women have her own husband

- the wife hath not power of her own body but the husband and likewise also the husband hath not the power of his own body but the wife

- Defraud not one the other except it be with consent for a time, that ye may give yourselves to fasting and prayer and come together again that satan tempt you not for your incontinency(inability to control sexual desire)

Don't just QUOTE the Biuble by vomiting out random verses.
Try to understand Scripture and pray for WISDOM . . .

According to the Mosaic Law (Exodus 20:8-11) the Jews were tpo do no work on the Sabbath.
HOWEVER, we see Jesus defending the Apostles when they picked grain on the Sabbath by making this EXCEPTION to the rule (Matt. 12:1-8).)

In 1 Sam. 21:1-6, David, asks for bread from Ahimelech the priest. The only bread he has is the consecrated bread, reserved for the priests, according to the Law. He gives the bread to David and his men out of necessity.
Jesus later defends this EXCEPTION (Matt. 12:3-4).

As I already educated you – God CAN and DOES make exceptions to work His will.
Mary and Joseph’s union was just such an exception . . .

 

[Titus]

As I already educated you – God CAN and DOES make exceptions to work His will.
Mary and Joseph’s union was just such an exception . . .

What verses actually teach that Mary did not have normal married relations with Joseph after the birth of Christ ?

But also, where does the scriptures teach Joseph chose to be celibate? This makes no sense because Joseph and Mary would not have married if they took celibacy vows.
Where is the scripture where Joseph and Mary were commanded by God to live celibate lives?

Bread of Lifes catholic doctrine is found nowhere in scripture.

If Mary truly lived her whole life as a virgin, then why did she marry Joseph?

She did not need Joseph to give birth to Jesus.
She did not need to be a wife to bear children.
She did not need Joseph as her husband to fullfill her sexual desires in marriage as God approves.
She and her husband did not consummate their marriage.

Bread of Life, give the scriptural reason why Mary married?

Matthew 1:24-25,
- then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife
and knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn Son and he called His name JESUS

Bread of Life: if your catholic doctrine be true and Joseph and Mary took celibacy vows.
Then why did Joseph not know that Mary being pregnant was the work of God and not Mary having premarital sex?

Since catholic doctrine teaches that the Bible teaches Joseph and Mary married in agreement to remain celibate, why does the Bible speak in language of the married couple in the future of having sexual relations?

Matthew 1:18,
- when as His mother Mary was espoused to Joseph before they came together she was found with child of the Holy Spirit

Why did Matthew use that language? - before they came together If they were instructed by God to never have sex in marriage?

If catholic doctrine is Biblical doctrine Matthew would not have said what he wrote.

Matthew's purpose is to show that Jesus' conception occurred before Mary and Joseph had sexual relations.
The phrase "before they came together" would be unnecessary if Matthew were teaching catholic doctrine that Joseph and Mary were permanently forbidden from sexual relations.

If God commanded Joseph and Mary to never have sex after they were married.
Then, where is this taught? What verses teach this?

 

[sondring7]

But also, where does the scriptures teach Joseph chose to be celibate? This makes no sense because Joseph and Marry would not have married if they took celibacy vows.
Where is the scripture where Joseph and Mary were commanded by God to live celibate lives?

Bread of Lifes catholic doctrine is found nowhere in scripture.

If Mary truly lived her whole life as a virgin, then why did she marry Joseph?

She did not need Joseph to give birth to Jesus.
She did not need to be a wife to bear children.
She did not need Joseph as her husband to fullfill her sexual desires in marriage as God approves.
She and her husband did not consummate their marriage.

Bread of Life, give the scriptural reason why Mary married?

Matthew 1:24-25,
- then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife
and knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn Son and he called His name JESUS

Bread of Life: if your catholic doctrine be true and Joseph and Mary took celibacy vows.
Then why did Joseph not know that Mary being pregnant was the work of God and not Mary having premarital sex?

Since catholic doctrine teaches that the Bible teaches Joseph and Mary married in agreement to remain celibate, why does the Bible speak in language of the married couple in the future of having sexual relations?

Matthew 1:18,
- when as His mother Mary was espoused to Joseph before they came together she was found with child of the Holy Spirit

Why did Matthew use that language? - before they came together If they were instructed by God to never have sex in marriage?

If catholic doctrine is Biblical doctrine Matthew would not have said what he wrote.

Matthew's purpose is to show that Jesus' conception occurred before Mary and Joseph had sexual relations.
The phrase "before they came together" would be unnecessary if Matthew were teaching catholic doctrine that Joseph and Mary were permanently forbidden from sexual relations.

If God commanded Joseph and Mary to never have sex after they were married.
Then, where is this taught? What verses teach this?

Good post Titus and a simple request to the Catho diehards, please list the verses :)

 

[sondring7]

There are none.
It is the ABSENCE of His so-called "siblings" in the Gospel shows that Jesus was an only child.

There is not a single verse that claims Mary had other children. The closest thing you have is Mary being in the company of a few of his kinsmen.
Notice that they call him the Adelphoi of Jesus, but they NEVER say the children of Mary.

As I'ver already laid out in great detail - Adelphos(oi) has a MULTITUDE of meanings - MOST of which do NOT translate as uterine siblings. I also showed that the majority of verses do NOT point to uterine siblins.

Let's not forget where I shoed that the "brethren" of the Lord were the sonse of Mary, wife of Clopas/Alphaeus - and NOT those pf Mary, mother of Jesus.

Also, a few pages back I laid out a Biblical argument for the fact that Mary is the fulfillment of the Ark of the Covenant. The Ark was blessed inside and out and was NOT to be handled by man.

The Ark carried symbols of God and His Word power within it.
Mary actually carried God Himself, the Word in her womb.

Oh, I'd say the onus is on YOU guys to show where the Bible states that Mary had "other chiildren" . . .

++++There are none.
Correct so the perpetual virgin is not confirmed by text thereby unbiblical

 

[BreadOfLife]

But also, where does the scriptures teach Joseph chose to be celibate? This makes no sense because Joseph and Mary would not have married if they took celibacy vows.
Where is the scripture where Joseph and Mary were commanded by God to live celibate lives?

Bread of Lifes catholic doctrine is found nowhere in scripture.

If Mary truly lived her whole life as a virgin, then why did she marry Joseph?

She did not need Joseph to give birth to Jesus.
She did not need to be a wife to bear children.
She did not need Joseph as her husband to fullfill her sexual desires in marriage as God approves.
She and her husband did not consummate their marriage.

Bread of Life, give the scriptural reason why Mary married?

Matthew 1:24-25,
- then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife
and knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn Son and he called His name JESUS

Bread of Life: if your catholic doctrine be true and Joseph and Mary took celibacy vows.
Then why did Joseph not know that Mary being pregnant was the work of God and not Mary having premarital sex?

Since catholic doctrine teaches that the Bible teaches Joseph and Mary married in agreement to remain celibate, why does the Bible speak in language of the married couple in the future of having sexual relations?

Matthew 1:18,
- when as His mother Mary was espoused to Joseph before they came together she was found with child of the Holy Spirit

Why did Matthew use that language? - before they came together If they were instructed by God to never have sex in marriage?

If catholic doctrine is Biblical doctrine Matthew would not have said what he wrote.

Matthew's purpose is to show that Jesus' conception occurred before Mary and Joseph had sexual relations.
The phrase "before they came together" would be unnecessary if Matthew were teaching catholic doctrine that Joseph and Mary were permanently forbidden from sexual relations.

If God commanded Joseph and Mary to never have sex after they were married.
Then, where is this taught? What verses teach this?

You are deflecting again . . .

I asked you to show me the verses, describing Mary having other children. You couldn't answer it because there are no verses. In fact you've shown ZERO evidence whatsoever.

On the other hand - I and others have shown the Scriptural and linguistic evidence about the words Adelphos, Ach', and ALL of their variations. In response, all YOU have given us your opinions on the matter.

YOUR opinion on Mary's, Perpetual Virginity didn't come about until the 1500 years AFTER Jesus and his Mother walked the earth.

I understand as for the use of the term "before they came together" - it COULD mean sexual relations - but it could ALSO mean coming together in marriage.

 

[BreadOfLife]

++++There are none.
Correct so the perpetual virgin is not confirmed by text thereby unbiblical

NOT exactly . . .

First of all - yove pout yourself in the SAME quandary by failing to provide Scriptural evidence for the claim that Mary DID have other children.

You see, since the time of the Apostles - the Church has NEVER taught that everything we believe and teach MUST first appear on the pages of Scripture. If it DID – then, virtually MILLIONS of Christians in the first 3 centuries of the Church would have been LOST. The Bible was not compiled and declared canonical until the Catholic Church declared the Canon in 383AD at the Council of Rome.

THIS is the problem with the man-made invention that is Sola Scriptura. The 16th century mad-made mess that declared ONLY that which is in Scripture is to be believed.

If Protestants took their belief in Sola Scriptura as seriously as they take their anti-Catholicism – then they’d have to explain WHY the following Protestant beliefs and practices are NOT found in Scripture . . .

• Sola Scriptura
• Sola Fide
• The “Sinner’s Prayer”
• Altar Calles
• “Once Saved, Always Saved”
• Irresistible Grace
• Limited Atonement
• Unconditional Election

Paul states explicitly that Christianity is NOT based on Sola Scriptura . . .
2 Thess. 2:15
So then, brothers, stand firm and hold to the TRADITIONS that you were taught by us, EITHER BY our spoken word OR BY our letter.

This is why we see the following UNBIBLICAL claims being made by Jesus and the Apostles:
Matt. 2:23 - the prophecy "He shall be a Nazarene" is ORAL TRADITION. It is not found in the Old Testament. This demonstrates that the apostles relied upon oral tradition and taught by oral tradition.

Matt 23:2 - Jesus relies on the ORAL TRADITION of acknowledging Moses' seat of authority (which passed from Moses to Joshua to the Sanhedrin). This is not recorded in the Old Testament.

1 Cor. 10:4 - Paul relies on the ORAL TRADITION of the rock following Moses. It is not recorded in the Old Testament. See Exod. 17:1-17 and Num. 20:2-13.

2 Timothy 3:8 - Paul relies on the ORAL TRADITION when speaking of Pharoah’s magicians, Jannes and Jambres. Their names are not recorded in the Old Testament.

Heb. 11:37 - the author of Hebrews relies on the ORAL TRADITION of the martyrs being sawed in two. This is not recorded in the Old Testament.

Jude 9 - Jude relies on the ORAL TRADITION of the Archangel Michael's dispute with satan over Moses' body. This is not found in the Old Testament.

Jude 14-15 - Jude relies on the ORAL TRADITION of Enoch's prophecy which is not recorded in the Old Testament.

Sola Scriptura is a 16th century PROTESTANT invention. It was NEVER practiced by the Church going ALL the way back to the Apostles. Jesus gave the following Authority to His Church as a whole – and NOT too the individual:
Matt 16:16-19, 18:15-18
WHATEVER YOU BIND on earth shall be bound in heaven; and WHATEVER YOU LOOSE on earth shall be loosed in heaven."

John 16:12-15
“I have much more to tell you, but you cannot bear it now.
But when he comes, the Spirit of truth, he will guide you to ALL truth. He will not speak on his own, but he will speak what he hears, and will declare to YOU the things that are coming.
He will glorify me, because he will TAKE from what is MINE and declare it to YOU.
Everything that the Father has is MINE; for this reason I told you that he will TAKE from what is MINE and declare it to YOU.

Luke 10:16
Whoever listens to YOU listens to ME. Whoever rejects YOU rejects ME. And whoever rejects ME rejects the ONE who sent ME."

1 Cor. 11:2
"I commend you because you remember me in everything and maintain the TRADITIONS even as I have delivered them to you".


So, I believe in the Perpetual Virginity because this is what Christ’s Church has ALWAYS taught – AND the fact that there is NO Biblical evidence for denying it . . .