Randy Kluth
Well-Known Member
Plainly put the Law of Moses clearly was *not* implied from the beginning when God made Man in His own image! The Law came much later!That is making an unjustified assumption that the Law of Moses is not Go's general law for mankind, implied from the beginning when of made man in His own image after His likeness.
I explained all this in my previous post. What was good under the time of the Law was no longer required when the time of the Law no longer existed. It served a good purpose in showing what God was like. But it was linked to ceremonies that was time-dependent. Once full redemption had been made by Christ, righteousness was no longer linked to redemptive ceremonies that never could provide final redemption.I don't see any motivation that God would have for giving laws to Israel that did not teach how to be in the image of His character, but rather that is the whole point of the Mosaic Law.
That is not the definition of the New Covenant. Jer 31 spoke of the time when national Israel will accept the New Covenant of Christ. This passage did not define the New Covenant as a Gentile version of observing the Law of Moses! ;)Gentiles are able to partake of the New Covenant, which involves God putting the Mosaic Law in our minds and writing it on our hearts (Jeremiah 31:33).
You are mis-reading what the perpetuity of the Law was intended to convey to Israel. It was designed to show the intractable nature of the Law, in condemning all human works apart from the redemption of Christ. It illustrated Christ's righteousness in comparison with imperfect humanity, which keeps us all from Eternal Life until it was made available by Christ himself.The Mosaic Covenant is eternal (Exodus 31:14-17, Leviticus 24:8)...
The longevity of the Law was always predestined to end in Israel's failure, as we read in the latter part of Deuteronomy. It was "eternal" insofar as God's moral requirements are eternal, whether under that system or under a new system.
But the Law was never intended to apply once final redemption from sin had been obtained by Christ. Jer 31 plainly teaches that the "eternal Law" would ultimately be fulfilled by a brand new version of that Law, dismissing the Law as such entirely.
"This will not by like that Covenant," the passage says (paraphrased). It will not be by the Law of Moses that God's Law will ultimately be fulfilled.
I believe the Scriptures say the exact opposite of this. The Law of Moses is clearly in mind when Paul refers to the "Law of Sin and Death!"Again, the law of sin and death is not the Law of Moses.
Paul elsewhere describes the Law of Moses as the source of human condemnation. It called for Israel to be righteous, but even so Israel's righteousness was shown to be in serious need of redemption.
This was the disqualifying element under the Law--any sin in the believer, any sin in the observer of the Law. Men could be justified as righteous under the Law, but only on a temporary basis. Ultimately, they were disqualified by their shortcomings and were disqualified from Eternal Life. Christ alone could redeem them.
I'll never say that Faith is the opposite of the Law unless we are comparing the means of obtaining Eternal Life. Faith obtains Eternal Life by reference to Christ as its object. The Law, as a system, is Self-Atoning, and is delegitimized by the contamination of the human observer of that system.In Matthew 23:23, Jesus said that faith is one of the weightier matters of the Mosaic Law, so faith is not a way of serving God that is an alternative to obeying the Mosaic Law, but rather it is obeying it in the right manner.
Faith operated under the Law, and achieves a temporary righteousness, sufficient to have kept Israel in relationship with God and in favor with God. But Faith could never obtain Eternal Life until Christ completed the objective of Faith, which looked beyond the Law and its condemnation of human sin.
We cannot walk in a "sinless" way like Jesus did--not as long as we are part of the Old Creation. We can only partake in *his* sinless nature. We can only produce his sinless righteousness as a character attribute in our own human, imperfect way. We show his love and kindness, even as we also show flawed human character defects.Christ set a sinless example of how to walk in obedience to the Mosaic Law and we are told to follow his example (1 Peter 2:21-22) and that those who are in Christ are obligated to walk in the same way he walked (1 John 2:6).
The Law was never meant to show that Israel could walk in a "sinless" way! On the contrary, it showed that all Israel required atonement for sin. They were all contaminated with sin even as they obeyed the rituals of the Law.
To "sin no more" refers to our general commitment to living a righteous life. It does not refer to a determination to be "sinless."The fact that Jesus gave himself to pay the penalty for our sins should make us want to go and sin no more, not consider ourselves to be free to do what God has revealed to be sin through His law.
I disagree. The Law and its condemnation of human sin is what Jesus nailed to the tree when he himself was nailed to the tree. Jesus represented the Law and its condemnation of all humanity. Nailing himself to the cross indicated that the path to Eternal Life comes through resurrection, and not by the Law itself.The Greek word "dogma" is never used by the Bible to refer to the Mosaic Law, so again Colossians 2:14 does not refer to the Mosaic Law being nailed to the cross.
Beyond this I think we're just going to disagree on what Paul and the New Testament Scriptures mean when they indicate Christ stands apart from the Law of Moses as the source of our justification. Have a nice day.