How To Get To Heaven When You Die

  • Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.

    You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
1,146
32
48
62
Homer Ga.
OzSpen said:
'Yes, we are of good courage, and we would rather be away from the body and at home with the Lord' (2 Cor 5:8 ESV).

I, with Paul, at death will be 'away from the body' - my body will be rotting in the grave and I (the unseen part of ME) will be 'at home with the Lord'.

That's what happens to the believer at death and that's where I will be. I expect it to be not many years from now.

Oz
That's not what the passage says OZ. I've already pointed out that Paul said he wants to be overclothed so that he won't be found naked.

For we know that if our earthly house of this tabernacle were dissolved, we have a building of God, an house not made with hands, eternal in the heavens.
2 For in this we groan, earnestly desiring to be clothed upon with our house which is from heaven:
3 If so be that being clothed we shall not be found naked.
4 For we that are in this tabernacle do groan, being burdened: not for that we would be unclothed, but clothed upon, that mortality might be swallowed up of life. (2 Cor. 5:1-4 KJV)

He's talking about the body. He doesn't want to be unclothed, without a body, but rather wants to be overclothed. As I said, the Greek word translated "overclothed" means to put on over. So Paul is "NOT" saying that there is some unseen part of him that will be with the Lord. He's saying just the opposite. What you're espousing is what the Greeks claimed. Paul is refuting that idea in this passage. We also know that Paul didn't believe that there was some unseen part of him that was going to be anywhere. When speaking of dead believers he said,


16 For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised:
17 And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.
18 Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished. (1 Cor. 15:16-18 KJV)

Paul said if the dead don't rise then those who died in Christ had perished. He didn't say there were in heaven with the Lord. He didn't say they were in paradise or in Abraham's bosom, he said if there is no resurrection then they're gone. The only hope the Christian has is the resurrection.
 

OzSpen

Well-Known Member
Mar 30, 2015
3,728
795
113
Brisbane, Qld., Australia
spencer.gear.dyndns.org
Faith
Christian
Country
Australia
Butch5 said:
That's not what the passage says OZ. I've already pointed out that Paul said he wants to be overclothed so that he won't be found naked.

For we know that if our earthly house of this tabernacle were dissolved, we have a building of God, an house not made with hands, eternal in the heavens.
2 For in this we groan, earnestly desiring to be clothed upon with our house which is from heaven:
3 If so be that being clothed we shall not be found naked.
4 For we that are in this tabernacle do groan, being burdened: not for that we would be unclothed, but clothed upon, that mortality might be swallowed up of life. (2 Cor. 5:1-4 KJV)

He's talking about the body. He doesn't want to be unclothed, without a body, but rather wants to be overclothed. As I said, the Greek word translated "overclothed" means to put on over. So Paul is "NOT" saying that there is some unseen part of him that will be with the Lord. He's saying just the opposite. What you're espousing is what the Greeks claimed. Paul is refuting that idea in this passage. We also know that Paul didn't believe that there was some unseen part of him that was going to be anywhere. When speaking of dead believers he said,


16 For if the dead rise not, then is not Christ raised:
17 And if Christ be not raised, your faith is vain; ye are yet in your sins.
18 Then they also which are fallen asleep in Christ are perished. (1 Cor. 15:16-18 KJV)

Paul said if the dead don't rise then those who died in Christ had perished. He didn't say there were in heaven with the Lord. He didn't say they were in paradise or in Abraham's bosom, he said if there is no resurrection then they're gone. The only hope the Christian has is the resurrection.
Butch,

Greek exegete, Simon J. Kistemaker (professor of NT emeritus), disagrees with you in your understanding of 2 Cor 5:8 (ESV) - and so do I:

8. We are confident, indeed, and prefer to be away from the body and to be at home with the Lord.

Paul reinforces the beginning of verse 6 by repeating the same clause, “we are confident,” and by adding the word indeed. But what he is saying sequentially is the opposite of the presumed Corinthian slogan: “While we are at home in the body, we are away from the Lord” (v. 6). He reverses the words of this slogan and communicates his longing to be with the Lord. He writes the same teaching elsewhere: “I desire to depart and be with Christ, which is better by far” (Phil. 1:23). Paul wants to leave his physical body and enter heaven in the presence of the Lord.

These words would not have caused any difficulty if Paul had not written that he did not wish to be unclothed but to be clothed (vv. 3-4). How can Paul, who abhorred the thought of a separation of body and soul, say that he prefers to be away from the body? Paul’s overriding desire is to be with Christ, which for him is life, and to die, gain (Phil. 1:21). He has to choose one of three different states:

1. to be alive at Christ’s return and to receive a transformed and glorified body;
2. to die, to leave the body, and to be at home with the Lord with an unclad soul.
3. to remain in the body because of obligations to serve the church (Phil. 1:24-26).

Of these three choices, Paul opts for the first one. But if the Lord tarries and death overtakes Paul, he would opt for the second choice. Nonetheless, because of the progress of the gospel in the church, he has to choose the last option. In summary, if there is a delay in Christ’s coming, Paul prefers the second state.

How do we interpret the apparent conflict in Paul’s presentation? Perhaps a parallel can be drawn by pointing to Paul’s commission as an apostle to the Gentiles and his readiness to die for the Lord (Acts 20:24; 21:13). He asked the church at Rome to pray for him that he might visit them on his way to Spain (Rom. 15:23-25, 30-32), yet at the same time he was willing to face death in Jerusalem. The conflict is resolved when we understand that Paul lived by faith and trusted the Lord. He was ready to serve the Lord but also to die for him and then “to be at home with the Lord.” The Greek is more descriptive, however, than English translations convey, for it expresses movement and rest: “to go on home to [and be with] the Lord” (compare NEB, “go to live with the Lord”).l

The Lord is always near his people (Ps. 119:151; 14:18), and when he calls them to glory, that relationship continues (Rev. 22:7, 12, 20). They leave the body and are forever in the Lord’s presence. The verb to be at home describes a state that begins at the moment of death (Kistemaker 1997:179-180).

Works consulted
Kistemaker, S J 1997. New Testament Commentary: Exposition of the Second Epistle to the Corinthians. Grand Rapids, Michigan: Baker Academic.
Oz
 

Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
1,146
32
48
62
Homer Ga.
OzSpen said:
Butch,

Greek exegete, Simon J. Kistemaker (professor of NT emeritus), disagrees with you in your understanding of 2 Cor 5:8 (ESV) - and so do I:


Oz
So what? What does that prove? Only that he's wrong. Oz, it seems to me that you give more authority to these authors than to the Scriptures. You see, what you've posted here stands in opposition to what Paul stated plainly about dead believers. Paul said if there is no resurrection of the dead, then those who have died in Christ have perished. They are not in some disembodied state, he said they'd perished. Paul's statement shows that he didn't believe in being with the Lord in some embodied form. He was looking to be with the Lord in the Resurrection. We read in the Scriptures that in death there is no memory. Therefore one who dies is not conscious, thus one moment he is alive and the next conscious thought is standing at the resurrection. So, it would seem instantaneous to the one who died even though many years may have passed. Why do you think death is compared to sleep in the Scriptures? When one goes to sleep they are not aware of what is taking place around them. One moment it's night time and the next it's morning.

So, the you and Kistemaker hold is refuted by the apostle.
 

OzSpen

Well-Known Member
Mar 30, 2015
3,728
795
113
Brisbane, Qld., Australia
spencer.gear.dyndns.org
Faith
Christian
Country
Australia
Butch5 said:
So what? What does that prove? Only that he's wrong. Oz, it seems to me that you give more authority to these authors than to the Scriptures. You see, what you've posted here stands in opposition to what Paul stated plainly about dead believers. Paul said if there is no resurrection of the dead, then those who have died in Christ have perished. They are not in some disembodied state, he said they'd perished. Paul's statement shows that he didn't believe in being with the Lord in some embodied form. He was looking to be with the Lord in the Resurrection. We read in the Scriptures that in death there is no memory. Therefore one who dies is not conscious, thus one moment he is alive and the next conscious thought is standing at the resurrection. So, it would seem instantaneous to the one who died even though many years may have passed. Why do you think death is compared to sleep in the Scriptures? When one goes to sleep they are not aware of what is taking place around them. One moment it's night time and the next it's morning.

So, the you and Kistemaker hold is refuted by the apostle.
It just so happens that what Kistemaker wrote as a Greek exegete is correct. The human being (not the body) lives on at death as 2 Cor 5:8 (ESV) asserts.

My position on what happens to unbelievers at death is articulated in my article, Do evil doers experience eternal destruction or annihilation at death?

Seems as though you and I are never going to agree on this one. Let's agree to disagree.

Bye.

Oz
 

ATP

New Member
Jan 3, 2015
3,264
49
0
U.S.A.
Butch5 said:
We read in the Scriptures that in death there is no memory. Therefore one who dies is not conscious, thus one moment he is alive and the next conscious thought is standing at the resurrection. So, it would seem instantaneous to the one who died even though many years may have passed. Why do you think death is compared to sleep in the Scriptures? When one goes to sleep they are not aware of what is taking place around them. One moment it's night time and the next it's morning.
Well said brother. Wow.
 

ATP

New Member
Jan 3, 2015
3,264
49
0
U.S.A.
"Absent from the body" refers to what happens when we die. "Present with the Lord" means present with Jesus in a resurrection body (at the Second Coming). The reason so many claim that we are immediately in heaven or hell the moment we die is because they fail to understand the 3rd aspect of the passage that Paul presents: the intermediate state of "nakedness" which is also depicted as being "without a body". This refers to lying dead in the grave with no body, no thoughts, no memories, no knowledge, no wisdom, no praising God, no nothing as we "wait" in a total state of insensibility for either the one or the other resurrection.

The key to understanding "absent from the body and present with the Lord" is found in verse 4 when Paul says, "For we that are in this tabernacle do groan, being burdened, not that we want to be unclothed, but clothed upon that mortality might be swallowed of life." 2 Corinthians 5:4 KJV

Some say Paul wasn't talking about some intermediate state of nakedness in the grave between being clothed with the mortal body and the immortal, resurrection body, but that he was referring to the "spiritual nakedness" of being a lost soul without the robe of Christ's righteousness.

If that were truly the case, then we would understand Paul to be saying, "For we that are in this tabernacle to groan, being burdened, not that we want to (appear in judgment without the robe of Christ's righteousness), but clothed upon, that mortality might be swallowed up of life."

Does the above statement make any sense? It makes zero sense.

What Paul is saying is, "For we that are in this tabernacle do groan, being burdened, not that we want to be (lying in the grave dead awaiting the resurrection so that we can finally be clothed in immortality and be in the presence of Jesus), but clothed upon, that mortality might be swallowed up of life."

In other words, Paul is saying that his and our solution to the problem of the groaning we experience in our trouble filled lives is not the prospect of the rest and respite from that groaning that the grave would provide, but that our desire is to skip that step and be clothed upon with immortality that we may be in the presence of Jesus, though the grave is the unavoidable destination for us where we will have to wait for Jesus to come. It is in this that Paul said that he is confident and willing "to be absent from the body (skip the naked grave part) and present with the Lord."
 

ATP

New Member
Jan 3, 2015
3,264
49
0
U.S.A.
Notice that 1 Cor 15:50-54 and 2 Cor 5:1-10 both speak of the first resurrection, immortality, being clothed and being swallowed up. And 2 Cor 5:8 is right smack in the middle? That is no coincidence.
 

ATP

New Member
Jan 3, 2015
3,264
49
0
U.S.A.
2 Cor 5:1 NIV - This building and house refers to our resurrected bodies.

2 Cor 5:9 NIV - Paul is saying that the record of our lives, either while we are alive and continually adding to it or or after we are dead and it is a completed record, should both be pleasing to Him. Eccl 9:10 NIV Whatever your hand finds to do, do it with all your might, for in the realm of the dead, where you are going, there is neither working nor planning nor knowledge nor wisdom.

2 Cor 5:10 NIV - "Judgment seat" is translated "bema" in Greek.
 

Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
1,146
32
48
62
Homer Ga.
OzSpen said:
It just so happens that what Kistemaker wrote as a Greek exegete is correct. The human being (not the body) lives on at death as 2 Cor 5:8 (ESV) asserts.

My position on what happens to unbelievers at death is articulated in my article, Do evil doers experience eternal destruction or annihilation at death?

Seems as though you and I are never going to agree on this one. Let's agree to disagree.

Bye.

Oz
Oz,

Please address Paul words in 1 Cor. 15. The position you're espousing is contrary to Paul's words. How is it logical to draw a conclusion from Paul's words that contradicts his words elsewhere?

What I've stated fits with everything Paul said.
 

Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
1,146
32
48
62
Homer Ga.
ATP said:
Notice that 1 Cor 15:50-54 and 2 Cor 5:1-10 both speak of the first resurrection, immortality, being clothed and being swallowed up. And 2 Cor 5:8 is right smack in the middle? That is no coincidence.
That's what so many miss. The passage is about the resurrection. People take it from this context and insert it into their theology and say, 'see, the Bible says'.
 

Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
1,146
32
48
62
Homer Ga.
ATP said:
"Absent from the body" refers to what happens when we die. "Present with the Lord" means present with Jesus in a resurrection body (at the Second Coming). The reason so many claim that we are immediately in heaven or hell the moment we die is because they fail to understand the 3rd aspect of the passage that Paul presents: the intermediate state of "nakedness" which is also depicted as being "without a body". This refers to lying dead in the grave with no body, no thoughts, no memories, no knowledge, no wisdom, no praising God, no nothing as we "wait" in a total state of insensibility for either the one or the other resurrection.

The key to understanding "absent from the body and present with the Lord" is found in verse 4 when Paul says, "For we that are in this tabernacle do groan, being burdened, not that we want to be unclothed, but clothed upon that mortality might be swallowed of life." 2 Corinthians 5:4 KJV

Some say Paul wasn't talking about some intermediate state of nakedness in the grave between being clothed with the mortal body and the immortal, resurrection body, but that he was referring to the "spiritual nakedness" of being a lost soul without the robe of Christ's righteousness.

If that were truly the case, then we would understand Paul to be saying, "For we that are in this tabernacle to groan, being burdened, not that we want to (appear in judgment without the robe of Christ's righteousness), but clothed upon, that mortality might be swallowed up of life."

Does the above statement make any sense? It makes zero sense.

What Paul is saying is, "For we that are in this tabernacle do groan, being burdened, not that we want to be (lying in the grave dead awaiting the resurrection so that we can finally be clothed in immortality and be in the presence of Jesus), but clothed upon, that mortality might be swallowed up of life."

In other words, Paul is saying that his and our solution to the problem of the groaning we experience in our trouble filled lives is not the prospect of the rest and respite from that groaning that the grave would provide, but that our desire is to skip that step and be clothed upon with immortality that we may be in the presence of Jesus, though the grave is the unavoidable destination for us where we will have to wait for Jesus to come. It is in this that Paul said that he is confident and willing "to be absent from the body (skip the naked grave part) and present with the Lord."
You make some good points here. This letter was written early in Paul's ministry and it's possible that he was still expecting the Lord to return in his lifetime. If that had been the case then he would have gone right from his earthly body to the immortal one. He said later in 1 Cor 15.

1 Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed,
52 In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed.
53 For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality.
54 So when this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, and this mortal shall have put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory. (1 Cor. 15:51-54 KJV)

It would seem at this point in his ministry that Paul didn't expect to die before Christ returned. He speaks of being changed in an instant, corruption putting on incorruption.
 

ATP

New Member
Jan 3, 2015
3,264
49
0
U.S.A.
Butch5 said:
Thanks ATP. The sleep metaphor for death is seen in the Scripture. It has no meaning if one is conscious and with the Lord at death.
That's right. Time does not exist in deep sleep.

Butch5 said:
That's what so many miss. The passage is about the resurrection. People take it from this context and insert it into their theology and say, 'see, the Bible says'.
The problem is that they're taking one scripture and interpreting it without expanding on 2 Cor 5 as a whole. The correct way to use proper exegesis is to expand. 1 Cor 15 is interconnected. :)
 

OzSpen

Well-Known Member
Mar 30, 2015
3,728
795
113
Brisbane, Qld., Australia
spencer.gear.dyndns.org
Faith
Christian
Country
Australia
Butch5 said:
Oz,

Please address Paul words in 1 Cor. 15. The position you're espousing is contrary to Paul's words. How is it logical to draw a conclusion from Paul's words that contradicts his words elsewhere?

What I've stated fits with everything Paul said.
I addressed Paul's words in 1 Cor 15 in my PhD dissertation and it was passed by my 3 examiners (dissertation-only in the British system). What I exegeted there is NOT contrary to 2 Cor 5:8. You seem to be creating a straw man fallacy. Here you claim that my position is contrary to Paul's words in 1 Cor 15 but YOU GIVE NOT ONE EXAMPLE to demonstrate this apparent conflict. I'm not about to take your generalised statements as affirmations of truth when you give no example of what you are talking about from 1 Cor 15.

Your response here is another example of how you and I cannot have a logical conversation when you use a straw man fallacy.

Oz
 

OzSpen

Well-Known Member
Mar 30, 2015
3,728
795
113
Brisbane, Qld., Australia
spencer.gear.dyndns.org
Faith
Christian
Country
Australia
Butch5 said:
Thanks ATP. The sleep metaphor for death is seen in the Scripture. It has no meaning if one is conscious and with the Lord at death.
This statement is contrary to the evidence.


What is meant by “sleep” at death?
The Bible sometimes describes the state of death as “sleep” or “falling asleep” in verses such as Matt. 9:24; 27:52; John 11:11; Acts 7:60; 13:36; 1 Cor. 15:6, 18, 20, 51; 1 Thess 4:13; 5:10. Let’s take 3 samples from these verses:

1. Matt. 9:24. The ruler’s daughter had died (see 9:18) and before Jesus raised her from the dead, Jesus said, “‘Go away, for the girl is not dead but sleeping.’ And they laughed at him.”

2. Acts 13:36. “For David, after he had served the purpose of God in his own generation, fell asleep and was laid with his fathers . . .”

3. First Corinthians 15:20. “But in fact Christ has been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep.”

This sounds like the soul sleep position is signed, sealed and delivered. If believers go to sleep at death, surely there is no need for further discussion! It would be a danger to jump to such a conclusion this early in an examination of the biblical evidence.

There are many words in many languages (including English) that have a number of unrelated meanings. We see this with the language of ‘sleep’. Webster’s dictionary defines it three ways, one of which is: ‘a natural, regularly recurring condition of rest for the body and mind, during which there is little or no conscious thoughts, sensation, or movement’ (Webster 1978:1706). However, there are many different meanings to ‘sleep’ when statements such as these are made:

(1) My foot went to sleep (meaning that sensation was lost in my foot;
(2) I’ll sleep on it, which means that I will think about the issue and try to come up with an answer later;
(3) My children’s friends are coming for a sleepover, i.e. the children’s friends will come to sleep at our place for the night and there is likely to be a long night of talking, playing games, and favourite party food;
(4) That couple is sleeping together, meaning they are having sex;
(5) There are sleeper cells in this country, which is an indication that there are terrorists awaiting their opportunities to strike;
(6) I had to put my dog to sleep, meaning that I took the dog to the vet and he euthanised (killed) him/her (many of these examples were suggested by Dr John Roller n d, ‘Soul sleep’, but the article is no longer online).

New Testament scholar, Dr. N. T. Wright, wrote that “when ancient Jews, pagans and Christians used the word ‘sleep’ to denote death, they were using a metaphor to refer to a concrete state of affairs.We sometimes use the same language the other way round: a heavy sleeper is ‘dead to the world'” (Wright 2003, p. xix).

When my father died and I saw him in his coffin, he looked as though he was asleep. This is how we are to understand the language of sleep associated with death in the Bible. “Sleep” of the body is a metaphor that refers to death.

Remember the story of Jesus and Lazarus in John 11:5-44? Of Lazarus, it was said that he “has fallen asleep” and Jesus was going “to awaken him” (v. 11). Jesus was very clear what he had meant by “sleep.” “Now Jesus had spoken of his death” (v. 13). “Then Jesus told them plainly, ‘Lazarus has died'” (v. 14). Jesus explains further: “Everyone who lives and believes in me shall never die” (v. 26).

So, in this situation we have this kind of language used: Lazarus died and he looked as though he was asleep but the truth was that, because Lazarus believed in Jesus, Lazarus would never die. That sounds paradoxical. He died but he would never die! This means that the believer who dies physically and appears to be asleep (a metaphor), does not die because his unseen soul goes immediately into the presence of the Lord, thus meaning that the believer never really dies. At death, the believer’s real being (his/her soul) goes into the presence of the Lord (see 2 Cor. 5:8) [From my article, 'Soul sleep: A refutation'].

Works consulted
[SIZE=x-small]Roller, J. H. n.d., “Soul sleep,” available from: http://www.mychurch.org/blog/7515/Soul-Sleep (Accessed 27 September 2007).[/SIZE]
Webster, N 1978. J L McKechnie (gen ed), Webster’s New Twentieth Century Dictionary of the English Language, unabridged, 2nd edn. No city of publication: Collins World.
Wright, N. T. 2003, The Resurrection of the Son of God, series in Christian origins and the Question of God, vol. 3, Fortress Press, Minneapolis.


Oz
 

OzSpen

Well-Known Member
Mar 30, 2015
3,728
795
113
Brisbane, Qld., Australia
spencer.gear.dyndns.org
Faith
Christian
Country
Australia
ATP said:
"Absent from the body" refers to what happens when we die. "Present with the Lord" means present with Jesus in a resurrection body (at the Second Coming).
ATP,

There is not a word in the context of 2 Cor 5:8 (ESV) that gives that meaning. That context in 2 Cor 5:6, 8 (ESV) is that 'while we are at home in the body we are away from the Lord ... and we would rather be away from the body and at home with the Lord'. There is not a word in this context about being 'present with the Lord' meaning present with Jesus in the resurrection body at the Eschaton. Not a word!

Instead, we KNOW from these Scriptures in context that if we are alive in the body, i.e. 'at home in the body', then 'we are away from the Lord'. To be at home with the Lord is to be away from the body - at death, not the second coming.

Seems to me that your interpretation imposes your understanding on the text.

Oz
 

OzSpen

Well-Known Member
Mar 30, 2015
3,728
795
113
Brisbane, Qld., Australia
spencer.gear.dyndns.org
Faith
Christian
Country
Australia
ATP said:
I'm gonna leave Oz to the Lord. Shalom.
What is that meant to convey to me, especially when I've shown you in context that your view of 2 Cor 5:8 is not taught in Scripture?

Your comment reads awfully like conveying avoidance.

Let's agree to disagree. However, I'm already with the Lord. He's my Lord and Saviour. Leaving me to the Lord is saying nothing new as I seek Him daily.

Oz
 

Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
1,146
32
48
62
Homer Ga.
OzSpen said:
This statement is contrary to the evidence.

What is meant by “sleep” at death?
The Bible sometimes describes the state of death as “sleep” or “falling asleep” in verses such as Matt. 9:24; 27:52; John 11:11; Acts 7:60; 13:36; 1 Cor. 15:6, 18, 20, 51; 1 Thess 4:13; 5:10. Let’s take 3 samples from these verses:

1. Matt. 9:24. The ruler’s daughter had died (see 9:18) and before Jesus raised her from the dead, Jesus said, “‘Go away, for the girl is not dead but sleeping.’ And they laughed at him.”

2. Acts 13:36. “For David, after he had served the purpose of God in his own generation, fell asleep and was laid with his fathers . . .”

3. First Corinthians 15:20. “But in fact Christ has been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep.”

This sounds like the soul sleep position is signed, sealed and delivered. If believers go to sleep at death, surely there is no need for further discussion! It would be a danger to jump to such a conclusion this early in an examination of the biblical evidence.

There are many words in many languages (including English) that have a number of unrelated meanings. We see this with the language of ‘sleep’. Webster’s dictionary defines it three ways, one of which is: ‘a natural, regularly recurring condition of rest for the body and mind, during which there is little or no conscious thoughts, sensation, or movement’ (Webster 1978:1706). However, there are many different meanings to ‘sleep’ when statements such as these are made:

(1) My foot went to sleep (meaning that sensation was lost in my foot;
(2) I’ll sleep on it, which means that I will think about the issue and try to come up with an answer later;
(3) My children’s friends are coming for a sleepover, i.e. the children’s friends will come to sleep at our place for the night and there is likely to be a long night of talking, playing games, and favourite party food;
(4) That couple is sleeping together, meaning they are having sex;
(5) There are sleeper cells in this country, which is an indication that there are terrorists awaiting their opportunities to strike;
(6) I had to put my dog to sleep, meaning that I took the dog to the vet and he euthanised (killed) him/her (many of these examples were suggested by Dr John Roller n d, ‘Soul sleep’, but the article is no longer online).

New Testament scholar, Dr. N. T. Wright, wrote that “when ancient Jews, pagans and Christians used the word ‘sleep’ to denote death, they were using a metaphor to refer to a concrete state of affairs.We sometimes use the same language the other way round: a heavy sleeper is ‘dead to the world'” (Wright 2003, p. xix).

When my father died and I saw him in his coffin, he looked as though he was asleep. This is how we are to understand the language of sleep associated with death in the Bible. “Sleep” of the body is a metaphor that refers to death.

Remember the story of Jesus and Lazarus in John 11:5-44? Of Lazarus, it was said that he “has fallen asleep” and Jesus was going “to awaken him” (v. 11). Jesus was very clear what he had meant by “sleep.” “Now Jesus had spoken of his death” (v. 13). “Then Jesus told them plainly, ‘Lazarus has died'” (v. 14). Jesus explains further: “Everyone who lives and believes in me shall never die” (v. 26).

So, in this situation we have this kind of language used: Lazarus died and he looked as though he was asleep but the truth was that, because Lazarus believed in Jesus, Lazarus would never die. That sounds paradoxical. He died but he would never die! This means that the believer who dies physically and appears to be asleep (a metaphor), does not die because his unseen soul goes immediately into the presence of the Lord, thus meaning that the believer never really dies. At death, the believer’s real being (his/her soul) goes into the presence of the Lord (see 2 Cor. 5:8) [From my article, 'Soul sleep: A refutation'].

Works consulted
[SIZE=x-small]Roller, J. H. n.d., “Soul sleep,” available from: http://www.mychurch.org/blog/7515/Soul-Sleep (Accessed 27 September 2007).[/SIZE]
Webster, N 1978. J L McKechnie (gen ed), Webster’s New Twentieth Century Dictionary of the English Language, unabridged, 2nd edn. No city of publication: Collins World.
Wright, N. T. 2003, The Resurrection of the Son of God, series in Christian origins and the Question of God, vol. 3, Fortress Press, Minneapolis.

Oz
Oz, you've simply restated your position. Lazarus was dead, Jesus said so. He also said Lazarus was asleep, connecting the metaphor of sleep with death. You seem to agree there yet you then draw an illogical and unsubstantiated conclusion. That being that Lazarus wasn't dead. How is that? Your explanation is begging the question. You assume Lazarus wasn't dead to prove that Lazarus wasn't dead. Then you said, " Jesus explains further: “Everyone who lives and believes in me shall never die” (v. 26)." However, you left out part of the passage.

25 Jesus said unto her, I am the resurrection, and the life: he that believeth in me, though he were dead, yet shall he live:
26 And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die. Believest thou this? (Jn. 11:25-26 KJV)

Firstly, we see that Jesus speaking of the Resurrection, not the state of the dead. Secondly, He says of the one who believes in Him, "though he were dead". He says the believer though he were dead yet shall he live. So, He's talking about a believer who has died and shall live. Shall is future tense. Then of the believer who has died and shall live, Jesus says that one will never die. He's talking about a resurrected believer and how that one will never die. He's not saying a believer would never die.