Interesting preterist argument

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Davy

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Did you watch the video?

Brother, there are some here well familiar with men's doctrines of Preterism so that it is easily recognized by subject. So those don't have to listen to yet another speaker pushing the false idea. The Bible witness is True, so that no one needs convincing by men. And that is what those in Christ are required to do, check out a matter in God's written Word, and let it be our Witness of what is false, and what is True.
 

NotTheRock

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Brother, there are some here well familiar with men's doctrines of Preterism so that it is easily recognized by subject. So those don't have to listen to yet another speaker pushing the false idea. The Bible witness is True, so that no one needs convincing by men. And that is what those in Christ are required to do, check out a matter in God's written Word, and let it be our Witness of what is false, and what is True.

Ok. So what's the best biblical argument against preterism?
 

Scott Downey

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Preterists believe the resurrection is past. I am not a preterist.


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We believe Scripture teaches Christ would come again in that first century generation while some of His original disciples were still alive, to raise the dead, change the living, and catch up both groups together into the heavenly presence of Christ.

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Scott Downey

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Ok. So what's the best biblical argument against preterism?
post #50, they teach the resurrection is past.

quoted

We believe Scripture teaches Christ would come again in that first century generation while some of His original disciples were still alive, to raise the dead, change the living, and catch up both groups together into the heavenly presence of Christ.

Paul warns us about that error, them as false teachers

2 Timothy 2
14 Remind them of these things, charging them before the Lord not to [d]strive about words to no profit, to the ruin of the hearers. 15 Be diligent to present yourself approved to God, a worker who does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. 16 But shun profane and [e]idle babblings, for they will [f]increase to more ungodliness. 17 And their message will spread like cancer. Hymenaeus and Philetus are of this sort, 18 who have strayed concerning the truth, saying that the resurrection is already past; and they overthrow the faith of some. 19 Nevertheless the solid foundation of God stands, having this seal: “The Lord knows those who are His,” and, “Let everyone who names the name of [g]Christ depart from iniquity.”
 
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NotTheRock

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post #50, they teach the resurrection is past.

quoted

We believe Scripture teaches Christ would come again in that first century generation while some of His original disciples were still alive, to raise the dead, change the living, and catch up both groups together into the heavenly presence of Christ.

Paul warns us about that error, them as false teachers

2 Timothy 2
14 Remind them of these things, charging them before the Lord not to [d]strive about words to no profit, to the ruin of the hearers. 15 Be diligent to present yourself approved to God, a worker who does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth. 16 But shun profane and [e]idle babblings, for they will [f]increase to more ungodliness. 17 And their message will spread like cancer. Hymenaeus and Philetus are of this sort, 18 who have strayed concerning the truth, saying that the resurrection is already past; and they overthrow the faith of some. 19 Nevertheless the solid foundation of God stands, having this seal: “The Lord knows those who are His,” and, “Let everyone who names the name of [g]Christ depart from iniquity.”

Great post, Scott. Thanks!
 
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Jay Ross

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It’s not an assumption. It’s based on the vast majority of dictionaries, lexicons, biblical commentaries, and English translations recognizing genea means a generation, as in a group of people living that the same time, in the context of the Olivet discourse.

This is a false argument. Just because many people have made the same mistake does not mean that their written discourses are true.
 

Davidpt

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Depending upon the translation we use, depends on whether or not Matt 16:28 has been linked by the translation with the Transfiguration Passage.

However, Matt 17:1 suggests that there are six days separating Matt 16:24-28 from Matt 17:1-13 whereas Luke 9:28 suggests that eight days are separating these two recorded events.

Because the two recorded passages have a time gap between them, I would suggest that contextually that they are not linked in any way.

Shalom

I agree but not necessarily for the same reasons. Even if the transfiguration were to have happened that same day Matt 16:24-28 is involving, I still wouldn't conclude it is linked in any way.

According to the Jews at the time, meaning in another passage, they said Christ said that those that believe in Him shall never taste of death. Why would Jesus then contradict that in Matt 16:24-28 by saying that some here shall taste of death when they see the Son of man coming in His kingdom? Speaking of that, what does the transfiguration have to do with seeing the Son of man coming in His kingdom?


Matthew 17:1 And after six days Jesus taketh Peter, James, and John his brother, and bringeth them up into an high mountain apart,
2 And was transfigured before them: and his face did shine as the sun, and his raiment was white as the light.
3 And, behold, there appeared unto them Moses and Elias talking with him.
4 Then answered Peter, and said unto Jesus, Lord, it is good for us to be here: if thou wilt, let us make here three tabernacles; one for thee, and one for Moses, and one for Elias.
5 While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him.
6 And when the disciples heard it, they fell on their face, and were sore afraid.


Compared with.

Luke 21:31 So likewise ye, when ye see these things come to pass, know ye that the kingdom of God is nigh at hand.

Luke 19:15 And it came to pass, that when he was returned, having received the kingdom, then he commanded these servants to be called unto him, to whom he had given the money, that he might know how much every man had gained by trading.

It seems to me that these passages, and there are others as well, are meaning Christ coming in His kingdom. Should we then wrongly assume that the transfiguration was meaning Luke 21:31 and Luke 19:15, that Matt 17:1-6 was the fulfillment of them? I seriously doubt that would be anyone's position. Therefore, the point being, since no one's position would be that, the transfiguration has zero to do with Christ coming in His kingdom.
 
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Jay Ross

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It’s not an assumption. It’s based on the vast majority of dictionaries, lexicons, biblical commentaries, and English translations recognizing genea means a generation, as in a group of people living that the same time, in the context of the Olivet discourse.

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Sadly, because the Israelites could not comprehend the extended timeframes, they reduced a "generation" down to a descendant generation.

Genesis 15:16 tells us that in the fourth generation/age that some of Abraham would return to the land of Canaan in their own strength. This prophecy was and is linked by many scholars today with the prophecy just above in verse Gen 15:13-14 but this is not true. This prophecy was fulfilled in 1948 when the nation of Israel was recognised, 4,000 years after the birth of Isac, as a nation once more.

This is the same fulfilled prophecy that Christ referenced in Mat 24:31 which He used as a signpost for when the sixth age would end and God would begin gathering Israel to Himself once more.

Shalom